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AS6.1-3 | Post-anaesthesia Recovery — Graded Quiz

Graded 10 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 AS6.1 1 pt

A 58-year-old man is admitted to the PACU after emergency laparotomy under general anaesthesia. His temperature is 35.2°C, heart rate 112/min, BP 94/60 mmHg, SpO2 95% on 6 L/min simple face mask. In addition to fluid resuscitation, which PACU monitoring intervention is MOST critical to prevent further physiological deterioration?

A Apply a warming blanket and re-check temperature at 30 minutes
B Continuous end-tidal CO2 monitoring via sidestream capnography
C Arterial line insertion for continuous blood pressure monitoring
D Bladder catheter for hourly urine output monitoring

In a post-laparotomy patient with haemodynamic instability and suboptimal oxygenation, continuous capnography is the most sensitive early warning of hypoventilation, apnoea, or circuit disconnection. It detects respiratory compromise before SpO2 drops, since pulse oximetry lags behind ventilatory failure especially on supplemental oxygen.

Capnography detects apnoea and hypoventilation earlier than pulse oximetry — SpO2 on supplemental O2 can remain normal for minutes after ventilation ceases. In PACU, capnography is essential monitoring for high-risk patients.

Active warming is important for hypothermia but does not directly detect ventilatory failure. Arterial lines and urinary catheters are valuable adjuncts but are not superior to capnography for early detection of respiratory deterioration in an unstable post-operative patient.

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Q2 AS6.1 1 pt

A patient in the PACU achieves an Aldrete score of 9/10. However, she reports pain 8/10, nausea with one vomiting episode, and is shivering. Her SpO2 is 96% on room air and BP is within 18% of baseline. What is the appropriate action?

A Discharge immediately — Aldrete ≥9 mandates discharge regardless of symptoms
B Treat pain, nausea, and shivering before discharge; Aldrete is necessary but not sufficient for safe discharge
C Hold discharge until Aldrete score reaches 10/10
D Discharge to HDU only — PACU is no longer appropriate once Aldrete ≥9

Aldrete ≥9 is a necessary but not sufficient criterion. Discharge requires also that pain is controlled (VAS ≤3–4), no active nausea/vomiting (PONV management), no shivering, and a formal sign-off by the anaesthetist or senior recovery nurse. Uncontrolled PONV and shivering are PACU complications requiring treatment before discharge.

PACU discharge criteria: Aldrete ≥9 + VAS pain score acceptable + no active PONV + no shivering + verbal communication adequate + surgical site reviewed. PACU nurses should not discharge patients who are vomiting or shivering even with adequate Aldrete scores.

Aldrete score alone does not override active clinical problems. A score of 10 is ideal but not routinely required. HDU escalation is needed for haemodynamic instability, not simply for PONV or shivering.

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Q3 AS6.2 1 pt

A cardiac arrest occurs in the PACU. After attaching the defibrillator, the rhythm is identified as pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). CPR is in progress. The first shock is delivered. What is the correct sequence for the first three minutes of PACU resuscitation according to adult BLS/ALS principles?

A 1 shock → 2 minutes CPR (30:2) → rhythm check → if VT/VF persists, adrenaline 1 mg IV, then 2nd shock
B 1 shock → 2 minutes CPR (30:2) → rhythm check → if VT/VF persists, 2nd shock → after 3rd shock, adrenaline 1 mg IV + amiodarone 300 mg IV
C 3 stacked shocks without CPR in between, then adrenaline 1 mg IV
D 1 shock → rhythm check immediately → if still VF, adrenaline 1 mg IV before the 2nd shock

Current ALS algorithm for shockable rhythms (VF/pVT): shock → 2 min CPR 30:2 → rhythm check. If VF/pVT persists: 2nd shock → 2 min CPR → rhythm check. If VF/pVT persists: 3rd shock → 2 min CPR → adrenaline 1 mg IV + amiodarone 300 mg IV after the 3rd shock. Compressions at 100–120/min, depth 5–6 cm.

Shockable (VF/pVT): shock every 2 min with uninterrupted CPR (30:2); adrenaline 1 mg IV after 3rd shock, then every 3–5 min; amiodarone 300 mg IV after 3rd shock. Non-shockable (asystole/PEA): CPR + adrenaline 1 mg IV as soon as IV access — do NOT defibrillate.

Stacked shocks (without CPR) were abandoned in 2005 guidelines. Adrenaline is NOT given before the 3rd shock for shockable rhythms — this applies only to non-shockable rhythms (asystole/PEA). The 2-minute CPR periods are non-negotiable between each shock.

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Q4 AS6.2 1 pt

You are checking the crash cart in the PACU and notice the defibrillator pads are present but the 20% intralipid vial is missing. A post-operative patient had received a femoral nerve block with bupivacaine 1.5 mg/kg before transfer to the PACU. What is the significance of this finding?

A Minimal significance — LAST from bupivacaine is rare and responds well to standard CPR
B High significance — bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic; LAST can present as refractory VF that requires 20% intralipid as a specific antidote
C Moderate significance — intralipid is useful but standard vasopressors can reverse bupivacaine cardiotoxicity equally well
D High significance — intralipid reverses bupivacaine toxicity by blocking sodium channels directly

Bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic LA and can cause refractory VF that does not respond to standard resuscitation. 20% Intralipid acts as a lipid sink, sequestering bupivacaine from cardiac tissue. Standard vasopressors do not reverse this mechanism. The missing intralipid represents a critical crash cart deficiency.

Bupivacaine = most cardiotoxic LA; avoid high-concentration IV regional. Max dose 2 mg/kg. LAST → 20% Intralipid 1.5 mL/kg bolus + 0.25 mL/kg/min infusion. Crash cart completeness is part of AS6.2 competency.

LAST from bupivacaine is NOT rare (femoral blocks use large volumes near vascular structures). Standard CPR may be inadequate without intralipid. Intralipid does not block sodium channels — it works via lipid partitioning (the 'lipid sink' hypothesis).

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Q5 AS6.3 1 pt

A 52-year-old woman is in the PACU after open appendicectomy. She develops hypoxia (SpO2 85%), with increased work of breathing, a silent chest on auscultation, and peak airway pressures of 35 cmH2O if manually ventilated. She has a history of asthma. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

A IV methylprednisolone 125 mg as first-line treatment, then review
B Salbutamol 2.5 mg via nebuliser AND ipratropium 0.5 mg via nebuliser while preparing IV ketamine or IV magnesium for refractory bronchospasm
C Administer neostigmine 2.5 mg IV to reverse residual neuromuscular blockade
D Perform immediate endotracheal intubation without bronchodilators

Acute severe bronchospasm in the PACU is a life-threatening AS6.3 complication. First-line is bronchodilator nebulisation (salbutamol + ipratropium). Ketamine (1–2 mg/kg IV) is a bronchodilator and is useful as an induction agent if intubation becomes necessary. IV magnesium is also used for refractory cases. Steroids help but are not fast enough for acute rescue.

PACU bronchospasm: salbutamol ± ipratropium nebulisation → IV hydrocortisone → IV ketamine (bronchodilator, useful as induction if intubation required) → IV magnesium 1.2–2 g over 20 min. Neostigmine is a bronchospasm TRIGGER — avoid in asthmatics or re-verify reversal indication.

Steroids alone are too slow for an acute severe episode. Neostigmine can actually worsen bronchospasm (cholinergic). Intubation without bronchodilators in active severe bronchospasm is dangerous — ventilation may be impossible. Bronchodilators are always first.

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Q6 AS6.3 1 pt

A 40-year-old male is in the PACU following inguinal herniorrhaphy under spinal anaesthesia with 0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine. He is conscious and anxious, with HR 130/min, BP 70/40 mmHg, dry skin, and no motor block apparent below T12. What is the most likely cause of his haemodynamic state and the most critical next step?

A Residual spinal sympathectomy causing vasodilation; give IV phenylephrine
B Anaphylactic shock to bupivacaine; administer adrenaline 0.5 mg IM immediately
C Haemorrhagic shock from surgical site bleeding; urgent surgical review and blood product availability while initiating fluid resuscitation
D Vasovagal syncope; place in Trendelenburg position and monitor

Tachycardia + hypotension + anxiety in a conscious patient after spinal anaesthesia (with motor block resolved) is haemorrhagic shock until proven otherwise. Spinal sympathectomy causes bradycardia, not tachycardia. The surgeon must be called urgently and blood products made available while fluid resuscitation starts.

PACU tachycardia + hypotension = haemorrhage until excluded. Spinal sympathectomy = bradycardia with hypotension (compensatory reflexes fail). Always call surgeon, review wound, check surgical site, request CBC and cross-match in this scenario.

Residual sympathectomy does not persist after motor block resolution and classically causes bradycardia with hypotension. Anaphylaxis involves bronchospasm, urticaria, angioedema — not present here. Vasovagal is self-limiting with rapid recovery — not tachycardia with BP 70/40.

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Q7 AS6.3 1 pt

A 67-year-old man with a BMI of 38 is in the PACU after prolonged abdominal surgery under general anaesthesia. He is somnolent with RR 8/min, SpO2 88%, and snoring noises. His anaesthetic included a total of fentanyl 250 mcg. After jaw thrust and oxygen supplementation, SpO2 rises to 94% but he remains drowsy. What is the next appropriate management step?

A Place a nasopharyngeal airway and observe for 30 minutes
B Titrate naloxone 0.1–0.2 mg IV every 2–3 minutes to restore adequate respiratory rate and consciousness
C Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV bolus for rapid reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression
D Administer neostigmine 2.5 mg IV with glycopyrrolate to reverse residual neuromuscular blockade

This is opioid-induced respiratory depression (OIRD) — recognised by somnolence, low RR, low SpO2, and large opioid dose. Naloxone is indicated but must be titrated (0.1–0.2 mg every 2–3 min) to avoid acute withdrawal, hypertension, and pulmonary oedema. Obese patients are at highest risk for OIRD post-operatively.

OIRD recognition: RR <10, somnolence, pinpoint pupils, large cumulative opioid dose. Treatment: airway support + TITRATED naloxone 0.1–0.2 mg IV q2–3 min. Bolus 0.4 mg = avoidable PACU error. Obese patients: higher risk due to OSA + blunted hypoxic drive.

0.4 mg naloxone bolus causes abrupt reversal with catecholamine surge, pulmonary oedema, and pain crisis. Nasopharyngeal airway alone does not address the opioid effect. Neostigmine reverses neuromuscular blockade, not opioid effect — here the problem is respiratory depression, not muscle weakness.

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Q8 AS6.3 1 pt

In the PACU, a 28-year-old woman develops shivering with core temperature 35.6°C, 45 minutes after general anaesthesia involving 2.5 hours of open gynaecological surgery. She is distressed. What physiological consequence does post-operative shivering MOST importantly impose, and what is the first-line pharmacological treatment?

A Increased CO2 production with risk of hypercarbia; administer neostigmine
B Increased oxygen consumption (up to 400%) with risk of hypoxia and myocardial ischaemia; administer IV pethidine 12.5–25 mg or tramadol
C Decreased metabolic rate causing bradycardia; administer atropine 0.5 mg IV
D Peripheral vasodilation causing hypotension; administer IV phenylephrine

Post-operative shivering can increase oxygen consumption by up to 400%, threatening myocardial oxygen supply-demand balance in at-risk patients. Pethidine 12.5–25 mg IV remains the most evidence-based drug treatment (via kappa-opioid receptors); tramadol is an alternative. Active forced-air warming is the non-pharmacological cornerstone.

Post-operative shivering: O2 demand ↑ 400%, cardiac risk in IHD. Treatment: forced-air warming blanket + IV pethidine 12.5–25 mg or tramadol 1 mg/kg. Prevention: intraoperative warming, IV ondansetron, neostigmine avoidance.

Shivering increases, not decreases, metabolic rate. It does not cause vasodilation — it is usually associated with peripheral vasoconstriction. Neostigmine is not a treatment for shivering. Atropine addresses bradycardia, not shivering.

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Q9 AS6.1 1 pt

A 50-year-old man receives 0.5% bupivacaine spinal anaesthesia for hip surgery. In the PACU 40 minutes later, he develops HR 48/min, BP 80/50 mmHg, and feels nauseated. His spinal level is confirmed at T3. Which statement best explains the haemodynamic mechanism and correct immediate treatment?

A Sympathetic blockade to T3 impairs cardiac accelerator fibres (T1–T4) causing bradycardia + loss of venous tone; treat with IV atropine 0.5–1 mg + IV ephedrine 6–9 mg + leg elevation
B Relative hypovolaemia only — treat with 1 L rapid IV crystalloid infusion
C Opioid-induced bradycardia from intrathecal morphine; administer naloxone 0.1 mg IV
D Anaphylaxis to bupivacaine; administer adrenaline 0.5 mg IM

Spinal level T3 blocks the cardiac accelerator fibres (T1–T4), causing both bradycardia and vasodilation (loss of arterial and venous sympathetic tone). Treatment: IV atropine for HR, IV ephedrine (α+β) for BP, 15° Trendelenburg to increase venous return. Fluids alone are insufficient when the block is this high.

High spinal (≥T4): both HR and BP fall — dual pathology. Cardiac accelerators at T1–T4: blocked → bradycardia. Venous/arterial tone lost → hypotension. Treat: atropine 0.5–1 mg IV + ephedrine 6–9 mg IV + left lateral tilt (if pregnant) or leg elevation + fluids.

Fluids alone are insufficient — atropine and ephedrine are required when cardiac accelerator fibres are blocked. There is no intrathecal morphine mentioned. Anaphylaxis presents with urticaria, bronchospasm, and has different triggers. Nausea here is from hypotension + high sympathectomy, not vagal alone.

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Q10 AS6.3 1 pt

A 72-year-old woman is in the PACU following right-sided thyroid lobectomy under general anaesthesia. She complains of worsening hoarseness and difficulty swallowing 20 minutes post-operatively, and is noted to have progressive neck swelling. SpO2 is 96% on 6 L/min oxygen. What is the priority action?

A Request a formal ENT review in 1–2 hours
B Inform the surgeon immediately and prepare for emergency re-exploration and possible re-intubation or surgical airway
C Apply ice packs to the neck and increase oxygen to 10 L/min via non-rebreather mask
D Administer dexamethasone 8 mg IV as sole initial management for post-operative laryngeal oedema

Progressive neck swelling after thyroid surgery = expanding haematoma compressing the trachea. This is a surgical emergency. The airway can occlude within minutes. Immediate actions: summon surgeon + senior anaesthetist, prepare for re-intubation, have surgical airway equipment ready. Waiting is fatal.

Post-thyroidectomy neck haematoma: surgical emergency. Signs: neck swelling + dysphagia + stridor. Action: immediate surgeon call, bedside preparation for surgical clip removal if airway critical, emergency re-intubation by senior anaesthetist. Dexamethasone is adjunctive only.

Waiting 1–2 hours for ENT review is unacceptable — airway compression can develop rapidly. Ice packs and supplemental oxygen do not address the haematoma. Dexamethasone alone is appropriate for mucosal oedema but not haematoma expansion. Surgical decompression may be needed immediately.

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