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DR12.1-5 | Eczemas Erythroderma Drug Reactions — Graded Quiz

Graded 10 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 DR12.2 1 pt

A 22-year-old man presents with a 6-year history of flexural eczema. He was recently prescribed a moderate-potency topical corticosteroid (betamethasone valerate 0.1%) for application to his face twice daily for 6 weeks by a non-specialist. He now presents with skin atrophy, telangiectasia, and perioral dermatitis on his face. Which principle of topical steroid prescribing was violated?

A The steroid should have been applied to dry skin only
B Moderate-to-potent steroids should not be applied to the face due to high absorption and atrophy risk
C Topical steroids should not be used for more than 3 days
D The steroid should have been diluted in a 1:4 ratio with emollient before facial use

Correct. Facial skin is thin and highly absorptive. Moderate-potent steroids on the face for 6 weeks is a classic prescribing error that produces steroid rosacea, perioral dermatitis, telangiectasia, and atrophy. Only mild steroids (1% hydrocortisone) are appropriate for the face, and only briefly.

The face has thin skin with high transcutaneous absorption. Moderate-to-potent topical steroids (Group II-III) on the face cause skin atrophy, telangiectasia, perioral dermatitis, and steroid rosacea. Only mild steroids (1% hydrocortisone) should be used on the face, and only for short periods. Over-the-counter steroid-antifungal-antibiotic combination creams are a major source of facial steroid overuse in India.

The core principle violated is site-specific steroid potency selection. The face has thin, highly absorptive skin — potent steroids cause atrophy, telangiectasia, and perioral dermatitis. Only mild steroids belong on the face. This is the most common and damaging prescribing error in Indian eczema practice.

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Q2 DR12.3 1 pt

A 65-year-old man is brought with generalised skin redness and scaling covering >90% of the body surface for 3 days. Temperature 35.2°C, heart rate 118 bpm, respiratory rate 22/min. He has a known history of psoriasis. Which pathophysiological mechanism DIRECTLY explains the hypothermia in this patient?

A Reduced hepatic gluconeogenesis from protein wasting
B Massive cutaneous vasodilation with uncontrolled convective heat loss through inflamed skin
C Adrenal insufficiency from systemic inflammation
D Hypothalamic thermostat suppression by cytokines

Correct. The pathophysiology is direct: >90% BSA vasodilation creates a huge radiating/convecting surface that continuously loses heat to the environment at a rate the body cannot compensate for. This is the same mechanism as a major burn losing heat — the skin's thermostat is broken in the 'open' position.

In erythroderma, >90% of the skin surface is vasodilated. The skin normally thermoregulates by varying dermal blood flow. When the entire skin surface is continuously vasodilated, convective heat loss to the environment is massively increased, overwhelming the body's ability to retain heat — causing hypothermia, especially in cool environments.

The key pathophysiology: the skin is the body's thermostat. In erythroderma, massive uncontrolled vasodilation across >90% BSA turns the skin into a heat radiator — heat loss exceeds production, causing hypothermia. This is why a warm room (not cooling) is the first stabilisation measure.

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Q3 DR12.5 1 pt

A 50-year-old woman has been on allopurinol for gout for 3 weeks. She now has a widespread maculopapular rash, fever 39°C, facial puffiness, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Her FBC shows eosinophils 2,200/µL and her liver function tests show bilirubin 28 µmol/L and ALT 240 U/L. You suspect DRESS. Which of the following is the most important IMMEDIATE primary care action?

A Start oral prednisolone 0.5 mg/kg and monitor as outpatient
B Stop allopurinol immediately, do not rechallenge, and arrange urgent hospital admission
C Switch to a different uricosuric agent and re-check LFTs in 1 week
D Prescribe cetirizine 10 mg daily and topical betamethasone for the rash

Correct. The DRESS management priority is drug cessation + urgent hospital admission. Allopurinol must be stopped immediately with a lifetime rechallenge ban. The elevated bilirubin and ALT 6× ULN indicate significant hepatitis requiring monitoring for fulminant liver failure. Outpatient management with antihistamines is dangerous here.

DRESS management: (1) Stop the culprit drug IMMEDIATELY — never rechallenge; (2) refer/admit urgently because of organ involvement risk (liver, kidneys, heart); (3) supportive care and specialist immunosuppression are hospital decisions. Outpatient management with antihistamines is inadequate for a systemic drug reaction with hepatitis and eosinophilia.

DRESS with hepatitis (ALT 6× ULN, bilirubin elevated) requires: (1) immediate drug cessation — allopurinol stopped, never rechallenge; (2) urgent hospital admission for organ monitoring. Outpatient antihistamine/topical steroid treatment is inadequate for a multi-organ drug reaction.

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Q4 DR12.4 1 pt

A 25-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant develops rapidly progressive blistering, positive Nikolsky sign, mucosal erosions (oral + genital), and epidermal detachment over approximately 35% of her BSA. She was started on lamotrigine 6 weeks ago for epilepsy. Which diagnosis and management pathway is CORRECT?

A SJS/TEN overlap; manage as outpatient with oral prednisolone
B Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN); stop lamotrigine, treat like a major burn, transfer urgently to a burns unit
C Pemphigus vulgaris; start high-dose systemic corticosteroids
D Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome; start IV cloxacillin

Correct. 35% BSA = TEN (>30%). Lamotrigine (an aromatic anticonvulsant) is a classic culprit. The burns-model management applies: IV fluids, gentle wound care with non-adhesive dressings, mucosal care, temperature control, and urgent transfer. SSSS should be in the differential but affects neonates/young children, not adults, and has superficial (subcorneal) cleavage — Nikolsky sign is also positive but SSSS does not affect mucosae.

35% BSA detachment = TEN (>30%). Lamotrigine is an aromatic anticonvulsant and a well-recognised cause of SJS/TEN. Primary care management: stop the drug immediately, initiate burns-protocol care (IV fluids via Parkland formula, non-adhesive dressings, eye care, temperature control), and arrange URGENT transfer to a burns unit. SSSS affects children and has superficial cleavage; pemphigus has IgG autoantibodies.

35% BSA detachment classifies this as TEN (not SJS/TEN overlap which is 10-30%). Burns-model care is mandatory: IV fluid resuscitation, non-adhesive wound dressings, temperature control, mucosal care. Lamotrigine must be stopped immediately. TEN in pregnancy is a dual emergency requiring specialist obstetric + burns/dermatology collaboration.

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Q5 DR12.2 1 pt

A 48-year-old man presents to a primary care clinic with a 3-month history of well-defined, symmetrical, coin-shaped, itchy plaques on both legs. There is no history of atopy. KOH examination of skin scrapings from one plaque is negative. Which eczema subtype is this, and what is the FIRST-LINE topical treatment?

A Seborrhoeic dermatitis; ketoconazole shampoo 2% applied to plaques
B Nummular (discoid) eczema; moderate-potency topical corticosteroid + emollient
C Tinea corporis; systemic griseofulvin for 6 weeks
D Atopic eczema; mild topical corticosteroid (1% hydrocortisone)

Correct. Nummular/discoid eczema: coin-shaped plaques in adults without atopy, legs are a common site, KOH negative (excludes tinea). Treatment requires a moderate-potency topical steroid (e.g., betamethasone valerate 0.1% — trunk/limbs, not face) combined with emollients to restore the barrier. Mild steroids are usually insufficient for this subtype.

Nummular (discoid) eczema presents as coin-shaped plaques, typically on extensor surfaces or legs in middle-aged adults without atopic history. KOH negative rules out tinea corporis (the critical differential in India). Treatment: moderate-potency topical steroid + emollients. Mild steroids (hydrocortisone 1%) are often insufficient for discoid eczema.

Coin-shaped (nummular/discoid) eczema in a middle-aged adult with negative KOH (tinea excluded) requires moderate-potency topical steroids on trunk/limbs. Atopic eczema starts in childhood with flexural distribution. Seborrhoeic dermatitis has greasy scales in sebaceous areas. Always do KOH scraping first to exclude tinea in India before treating eczema-like plaques.

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Q6 DR12.3 1 pt

You are called to see a 70-year-old man in the ward who has developed erythroderma over the past week. His current medications include furosemide and enalapril (long-term), but he was started on allopurinol 8 weeks ago for gout. He also has a known history of eczema. What is the MOST important investigation to identify the underlying cause of the erythroderma?

A Skin biopsy for histopathology
B Detailed drug history including start dates, combined with blood eosinophil count and LFTs
C Patch test battery to identify a contactant
D Anti-desmoglein antibodies (pemphigus screen)

Correct. Allopurinol started 8 weeks ago falls exactly in the DRESS latency window (2-8 weeks). In a patient with both eczema history AND a new drug, the drug history with start dates + eosinophil count + LFTs is the highest-yield initial investigation to distinguish drug-induced erythroderma (DRESS) from eczema-driven erythroderma before biopsy results are available.

Erythroderma has four major causes: psoriasis, eczema, drug reaction, and cutaneous lymphoma. When a new drug (allopurinol, 8 weeks) has been started in the critical window alongside a pre-existing eczema history, the clinical work-up must first integrate the drug history (start dates, timing relative to erythroderma onset) with eosinophil count and LFTs to differentiate drug-induced DRESS/exanthematous reaction from eczema flare. Biopsy may follow but is not the first-line distinguishing investigation.

When erythroderma occurs and a new drug was started in the relevant time window, drug history with start dates + eosinophil count + LFTs is the first investigation priority. Allopurinol at 8 weeks is squarely in the DRESS window. Biopsy gives histological clues (spongiosis for eczema, lichenoid changes for drug) but takes days and does not immediately guide drug cessation.

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Q7 DR12.5 1 pt

A 32-year-old man re-presents to your clinic with a dusky, hyperpigmented, 2 cm oval plaque on his right thigh that he has had for 2 years, following an episode of inflammation that resolved spontaneously. He denies any drug intake but mentions he has been using a 'pain relief tablet' that a colleague gave him whenever he has back pain. The plaque becomes inflamed (red, swollen, painful) for 24-48 hours each time he takes the tablet. Which step should you take NEXT?

A Prescribe a moderate-potency topical steroid for the plaque and reassure
B Identify the specific tablet (ideally its composition), document it, counsel patient to avoid it permanently
C Refer urgently to a burns unit for dressing of the lesion
D Perform patch testing with common analgesics

Correct. The primary care action for fixed drug eruption: identify the culprit drug (ask the patient to bring or describe the tablet — NSAIDs, co-trimoxazole, metronidazole are most common), counsel permanent avoidance, and document the drug allergy. Burns unit referral is inappropriate — FDE is a benign, self-limiting reaction. Patch testing is not the investigation for FDE.

Fixed drug eruption management: (1) identify the causative drug — ask the patient to bring the tablet or identify it; common culprits include NSAIDs (ibuprofen), co-trimoxazole, metronidazole, and tetracyclines; (2) permanently counsel to avoid the drug; (3) document in the case record and give a written alert; (4) topical steroids and urgent referral are not required for FDE. Rechallenge confirms the diagnosis but is not recommended routinely.

Fixed drug eruption management in primary care: identify the culprit drug and advise permanent avoidance. FDE is benign and self-limiting — the hyperpigmentation between episodes is post-inflammatory and does not need treatment. Patch testing is used for ACD, not FDE (a photopatch or oral provocation test under specialist supervision can confirm FDE, but is not primary care practice).

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Q8 DR12.2 1 pt

An 8-year-old girl with a 3-year history of atopic eczema requires a step-up in treatment because her moderate eczema is no longer controlled with a twice-daily moisturiser and 1% hydrocortisone. Her mother is concerned about steroid side effects. Her eczema is predominantly on her face and neck. Which is the MOST appropriate next step?

A Step up to betamethasone valerate 0.1% cream applied twice daily to the face
B Add a calcineurin inhibitor (tacrolimus 0.03% or pimecrolimus) for the face and neck
C Add oral prednisolone 1 mg/kg/day for 2 weeks
D Prescribe systemic methotrexate as second-line therapy

Correct. TCIs (tacrolimus 0.03% in children, tacrolimus 0.1% in adults; pimecrolimus 1%) are the preferred step-up for facial eczema because they are effective without causing atrophy or telangiectasia. They are especially appropriate here because: (1) face/neck site, (2) parental steroid concern, (3) moderate eczema not controlled by mild steroids.

Topical calcineurin inhibitors (TCIs — tacrolimus 0.03% for children 2-15 years, pimecrolimus 1%) are the step-up treatment of choice for facial/periocular eczema because they do not cause skin atrophy, making them specifically preferred over potent steroids in thin-skinned areas. For children 2-15 years, tacrolimus 0.03% ointment is the approved dose. Systemic therapies (prednisolone, methotrexate) are not the next step for moderate eczema.

The face requires non-atrophogenic options when stepping up beyond mild steroids. Topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus 0.03% for children 2-15 years, pimecrolimus for milder/younger cases) are the correct step-up for facial eczema — they do not cause atrophy. Betamethasone valerate 0.1% on a child's face would cause significant atrophy and steroid side effects.

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Q9 DR12.3 1 pt

A 55-year-old man with long-standing psoriasis is found on examination to have erythema and scaling covering 92% of his BSA (erythroderma). He is haemodynamically stable, temperature 36.4°C. After initiating stabilisation (warm environment, IV fluids, emollients), you prepare the transfer documentation. Which ONE investigation result should be included in the transfer note because it is MOST relevant to the receiving specialist for definitive treatment planning?

A Serum total IgE level
B A current drug history including all recent new medications
C Anti-nuclear antibody titre
D Serum calcium level

Correct. The drug history is the highest-yield transfer note item for erythroderma. In psoriasis, triggers such as lithium, antimalarials, NSAIDs, and — critically — sudden steroid withdrawal can precipitate erythroderma. The specialist needs to know what drugs to stop (or whether any drug is the primary cause rather than psoriasis flare) before starting systemic therapy.

For the receiving specialist planning definitive therapy for erythroderma, the most critical information is the complete drug history (including all recent additions and OTC drugs). In psoriatic erythroderma, drugs that precipitate the flare (lithium, antimalarials, sudden systemic steroid withdrawal, NSAIDs) or cause independent drug-induced erythroderma must be identified — because stopping them is a therapeutic intervention independent of psoriasis management. IgE, ANA, and calcium are not relevant to erythroderma cause or definitive management.

The most actionable single piece of information for the receiving specialist in erythroderma is the complete drug history. Erythroderma causes include drug reactions, and even in known psoriasis patients, a new drug may be the trigger. Identifying and stopping the culprit drug is the highest-priority intervention alongside psoriasis-specific therapy.

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Q10 DR12.1 1 pt

A 40-year-old nurse presents with chronic itchy dermatitis affecting both hands and forearms for 2 years. She works in the intensive care unit and regularly washes her hands with antiseptic soap 20-30 times per shift. There is no personal or family history of atopy. Patch testing is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis and its pathogenesis?

A Atopic eczema; filaggrin mutation causing barrier failure
B Irritant contact dermatitis; physical/chemical stripping of the stratum corneum by repeated detergent and water exposure
C Allergic contact dermatitis; Type IV sensitization to antiseptic ingredients
D Pompholyx; idiopathic dyshidrosis

Correct. Irritant contact dermatitis from repeated wet work: 20-30 handwashes per shift strips stratum corneum lipids and disrupts the brick-and-mortar barrier via direct physical damage — no immunological sensitisation required. Negative patch test excludes ACD. Healthcare workers are the highest-risk group for occupational ICD.

Irritant contact dermatitis (ICD) is the commonest occupational skin disease. Repeated wet work and detergent exposure strips the stratum corneum lipids and disrupts the skin barrier — a direct physical/chemical (non-immunological) process. Negative patch testing excludes ACD. No atopic history excludes atopic eczema. ICD is the default diagnosis when patch testing is negative in an occupationally exposed worker.

Repeated handwashing in healthcare workers is the textbook cause of occupational irritant contact dermatitis. The mechanism is physical/chemical — detergent and repeated water exposure strips barrier lipids and disrupts corneocyte cohesion without immunological sensitisation. Negative patch test confirms this is not ACD.

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