Page 19 of 21

IM18.1-16 | Cerebrovascular Accident — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.

Q1 IM18.11 1 pt

A 72-year-old man is brought to the ED by family who say he was last seen normal at 10 PM. He is found at 7 AM with slurred speech, right arm drift, and right facial droop. NIHSS is 8. NCCT brain shows no haemorrhage; no early ischaemic changes. BP is 168/95 mmHg after one dose of IV labetalol. What is the MOST appropriate management at this point?

A Proceed with IV alteplase — symptoms onset was 9 hours ago but BP is controlled
B Withhold thrombolysis; administer aspirin 300 mg and admit for monitoring and workup
C Give IV alteplase because the NIHSS is less than 15 making thrombolysis low risk
D Proceed with urgent mechanical thrombectomy without imaging selection
E Perform urgent cardiac catheterisation to identify the embolic source

Correct. The time of last known well is 10 PM (9 hours ago) — this is beyond both the 4.5-hour thrombolysis window and beyond the standard 6-hour thrombectomy window without advanced imaging selection. Thrombolysis is contraindicated beyond 4.5 hours. The appropriate management is antiplatelet therapy (aspirin 300 mg), admission to a stroke unit, and full aetiological workup. Mechanical thrombectomy beyond 6 hours requires perfusion imaging (CT perfusion or MRI DWI-FLAIR mismatch) to confirm salvageable penumbra before proceeding.

IV alteplase window: onset within 4.5 hours. Standard thrombectomy window: within 6 hours. Beyond 6 hours, thrombectomy requires perfusion imaging (CT-P or DWI-FLAIR mismatch) to identify salvageable penumbra. Wake-up stroke uses last known well as the onset time.

Thrombolysis is contraindicated when the time of last known well exceeds 4.5 hours — this patient has a 9-hour window, ruling out tPA. Thrombectomy beyond 6 hours requires perfusion imaging selection before proceeding. Aspirin and stroke unit admission are appropriate initial management.

Click to reveal answer

Q2 IM18.11 1 pt

A 65-year-old diabetic man was given IV alteplase for acute ischaemic stroke. Thirty minutes after infusion, his BP rises to 200/115 mmHg and he develops sudden neurological deterioration with headache. Which of the following is the MOST likely complication and the CORRECT immediate response?

A Cerebral oedema — give IV mannitol 20% and continue monitoring
B Haemorrhagic transformation — stop alteplase infusion, urgent NCCT, and consider cryoprecipitate
C Hypersensitivity to alteplase — give IV antihistamine and corticosteroid
D Vasospasm from reperfusion — administer IV nimodipine
E Seizure from ischaemia reperfusion — give IV lorazepam and continue alteplase

Correct. Neurological deterioration during or after alteplase infusion with a rising BP strongly suggests haemorrhagic transformation (symptomatic intracranial haemorrhage — sICH). The immediate actions are: (1) stop the alteplase infusion if still running; (2) urgent NCCT brain; (3) if confirmed — give cryoprecipitate (contains fibrinogen) to reverse fibrinolysis; also consider fresh frozen plasma and platelets if the fibrinogen is critically low. sICH occurs in approximately 6% of thrombolysed patients and is the most feared complication.

Symptomatic ICH complicates ~6% of alteplase cases. Hallmarks: neurological decline during/after infusion, BP surge. Immediate actions: stop infusion, urgent NCCT, cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen source) if confirmed.

Neurological deterioration during alteplase administration = haemorrhagic transformation until proven otherwise. Stop infusion, get urgent NCCT brain. If confirmed, cryoprecipitate to replace fibrinogen is the treatment. This is the most serious complication of thrombolysis.

Click to reveal answer

Q3 IM18.11 1 pt

A 60-year-old woman with AF is found to have an ischaemic stroke. She has been on warfarin with a documented INR of 2.8 at the time of admission. Which statement about this clinical scenario is CORRECT?

A She can receive IV alteplase since her INR is within the therapeutic range for AF
B IV alteplase is contraindicated because INR exceeds 1.7
C She can receive alteplase because the stroke was likely cardioembolic, not haemorrhagic
D Mechanical thrombectomy is also contraindicated when INR exceeds 1.7
E Her INR should be reversed with Vitamin K before any treatment decision

Correct. IV alteplase is absolutely contraindicated when INR exceeds 1.7, regardless of the indication for anticoagulation. An INR of 2.8 is a hard exclusion criterion for thrombolysis because of the markedly increased risk of haemorrhagic transformation. Mechanical thrombectomy, however, is NOT contraindicated by elevated INR and may still be appropriate if large vessel occlusion is confirmed on CTA.

Contraindications to IV alteplase include: INR >1.7, platelet count <100,000, prior intracranial haemorrhage, active bleeding, recent major surgery within 14 days, blood glucose <50 or >400. Thrombectomy has fewer pharmacological exclusions.

INR >1.7 is an absolute contraindication to IV thrombolysis. Mechanical thrombectomy does NOT carry the same INR exclusion criterion and can still be considered if CTA confirms a large vessel occlusion.

Click to reveal answer

Q4 IM18.5 1 pt

A 40-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset right Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis), dysarthria, dysphagia, ipsilateral limb ataxia, and contralateral spinothalamic loss (pain and temperature) in the limbs. This constellation BEST describes infarction in which territory?

A Left middle cerebral artery
B Right posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) — lateral medullary syndrome
C Left anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
D Right superior cerebellar artery
E Bilateral posterior cerebral artery occlusion

Correct. The lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) from PICA occlusion includes: ipsilateral Horner syndrome (descending sympathetics), ipsilateral cranial nerve V (facial pain/temperature), ipsilateral IX/X palsy (dysphagia, dysarthria, hoarseness), ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, and contralateral spinothalamic loss in the limbs (crossed pattern). In a 40-year-old, vertebral artery dissection must be actively excluded with T1 fat-saturation MRI of the neck.

Lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome = PICA territory. Key findings: crossed sensory loss (ipsilateral face, contralateral limbs), ipsilateral Horner, ipsilateral IX/X palsy, ipsilateral ataxia. In young patients, exclude vertebral artery dissection with T1 fat-sat MRI neck.

Wallenberg syndrome (lateral medullary — PICA territory): ipsilateral Horner, ipsilateral IX/X palsy (dysphagia/dysarthria), ipsilateral cerebellar ataxia, contralateral spinothalamic loss in limbs (crossed signs). In young patients, vertebral artery dissection is the most common cause.

Click to reveal answer

Q5 IM18.6 1 pt

A 68-year-old patient who had a left hemisphere stroke 3 days ago produces fluent speech with many paraphasic errors and neologisms; comprehension is severely impaired; repetition is also impaired. The MOST likely diagnosis and anatomical location are:

A Broca's aphasia — posterior inferior frontal gyrus (Broca's area)
B Conduction aphasia — arcuate fasciculus
C Wernicke's aphasia — posterior superior temporal gyrus (Wernicke's area)
D Global aphasia — entire MCA territory
E Anomic aphasia — angular gyrus

Correct. Wernicke's aphasia: fluent speech with paraphasias and neologisms, severely impaired comprehension, and impaired repetition. The lesion is in the posterior superior temporal gyrus (Wernicke's area, Brodmann's area 22) in the dominant (left) hemisphere, supplied by the inferior division of the left MCA. The most dangerous clinical trap is confusing Wernicke's aphasia with delirium or confusion — the key distinction is that comprehension is selectively impaired and speech is fluent (not reduced as in delirium).

Aphasia classification: Broca (non-fluent, comprehension intact, repetition impaired), Wernicke (fluent, comprehension impaired, repetition impaired), Conduction (fluent, comprehension relatively intact, repetition severely impaired). Wernicke's aphasia is commonly mistaken for confusion.

Wernicke's aphasia: fluent, paraphasic, neologistic speech + severely impaired comprehension + impaired repetition = posterior temporal lobe (Wernicke's area). Broca's aphasia is non-fluent with intact comprehension. Conduction aphasia has intact fluency and comprehension but severely impaired repetition.

Click to reveal answer

Q6 IM18.7 1 pt

A neurological patient is found to have an upper motor neuron pattern bladder. Which of the following BEST describes the clinical features and likely brain or spinal cord level of the lesion?

A Urinary retention with overflow incontinence — conus medullaris lesion at S2-4
B Detrusor hyperreflexia causing urgency and urge incontinence — lesion above the pontine micturition centre
C Detrusor areflexia causing painless urinary retention — peripheral nerve lesion
D Stress incontinence on coughing — pelvic floor weakness from lower motor neuron lesion
E Bladder spasms with no urge sensation — lesion at the sacral spinal cord

Correct. Upper motor neuron bladder (suprapontine lesion — e.g. stroke, brain tumour, high cervical myelopathy) causes detrusor hyperreflexia because the inhibitory cortical micturition centres are disrupted, but the sacral micturition reflex arc is intact. This produces urgency, frequency, and urge incontinence. In contrast, a lower motor neuron/peripheral nerve lesion (conus/cauda equina/pelvic nerve) causes detrusor areflexia with urinary retention and overflow.

Bladder dysfunction in neurological disease: UMN lesion (above pons/high cord) = detrusor hyperreflexia = urgency/urge incontinence. LMN lesion (conus/cauda equina/pelvic nerve) = detrusor areflexia = painless retention + overflow. Stroke commonly causes UMN bladder.

Upper motor neuron bladder = suprapontine lesion = detrusor hyperreflexia = urgency, frequency, urge incontinence. Lower motor neuron bladder = conus/cauda equina/peripheral = detrusor areflexia = retention with overflow.

Click to reveal answer

Q7 IM18.15 1 pt

A patient is being counselled after an ischaemic stroke with 40% motor recovery at 6 weeks. The family asks when rehabilitation should begin and how long it will continue. Which statement MOST accurately reflects current evidence-based guidance?

A Rehabilitation should begin only after the acute phase is fully resolved, at 2-4 weeks
B Rehabilitation begins within 24-48 hours of stroke onset if the patient is medically stable, and continues for up to 12 months or beyond
C Rehabilitation is unlikely to benefit patients with significant motor deficits beyond 3 months
D Physiotherapy alone is sufficient; speech therapy and occupational therapy are secondary
E Rehabilitation begins at 1 week and benefits plateau at 3 months

Correct. Early mobilisation — beginning within 24-48 hours of stroke onset if medically stable — is the most evidence-supported principle in stroke rehabilitation. Early movement prevents DVT, aspiration pneumonia, and contractures, and exploits neuroplasticity during the critical early window. Rehabilitation continues for at least 12 months and may extend beyond, as neuroplasticity allows incremental gains. A multidisciplinary team (physiotherapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, neuropsychology) is essential.

Stroke rehabilitation: begin within 24-48 hours if medically stable. Multidisciplinary (physiotherapy + OT + speech therapy + neuropsychology + dietitian). Continues for 12 months or beyond. Neuroplasticity supports ongoing recovery beyond 3 months.

Stroke rehabilitation begins within 24-48 hours of onset (if medically stable) and continues for 12 months or beyond. Neuroplasticity underpins recovery; early mobilisation is the single most evidence-supported principle. All disciplines — physiotherapy, OT, speech therapy — are equally important and begin simultaneously.

Click to reveal answer

Q8 IM18.3 1 pt

A 50-year-old man with a 15-minute episode of left arm weakness and facial droop that fully resolved is evaluated. His ABCD2 score is 5. Which statement about his risk and IMMEDIATE management is CORRECT?

A ABCD2 score 5 confers low 48-hour stroke risk; outpatient workup within one week is adequate
B He has had a TIA; ABCD2 score 5 (high risk); should be admitted urgently or assessed in a rapid TIA clinic within 24 hours
C TIA never requires anticoagulation; aspirin alone is sufficient for all TIA patients
D Antiplatelet therapy is not indicated until DWI-MRI confirms no infarct
E ABCD2 score only applies if the TIA involved speech disorders; motor TIA is scored differently

Correct. The ABCD2 score predicts 2-day stroke risk after TIA. Components: Age ≥60 (1), BP ≥140/90 (1), Clinical features — unilateral weakness (2) or speech without weakness (1), Duration 10-59 min (1) or ≥60 min (2), Diabetes (1). A score of 4-7 indicates high risk. Patients with ABCD2 ≥4 should be admitted or seen in a rapid TIA clinic (within 24 hours) with urgent brain imaging, carotid Doppler, and initiation of antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel dual antiplatelet for 21 days in non-cardioembolic TIA).

ABCD2 score for TIA risk stratification: Age ≥60 (1), BP ≥140/90 (1), Clinical (unilateral weakness 2, speech without motor 1), Duration 10-59 min (1) or ≥60 min (2), Diabetes (1). Score ≥4 = high risk = same-day assessment. Dual antiplatelet (aspirin+clopidogrel) for 21 days in non-cardioembolic TIA.

ABCD2 score 4-7 = high 48-hour stroke risk. Patients with ABCD2 ≥4 after TIA need admission or same-day TIA clinic assessment — not outpatient deferral. Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + clopidogrel) for 21 days is now recommended for non-cardioembolic high-risk TIA.

Click to reveal answer

Q9 IM18.14 1 pt

A 55-year-old hypertensive man is admitted with a right cerebellar haemorrhage. CT shows a 4 cm haematoma with mass effect on the fourth ventricle and developing hydrocephalus. GCS has deteriorated from 15 to 10 over 4 hours. The MOST appropriate management is:

A Medical management only: lower BP, osmotherapy, and close observation
B Urgent posterior fossa decompression and clot evacuation
C Stereotactic aspiration of the clot under CT guidance
D IV alteplase to lyse the clot and restore cerebellar perfusion
E Ventriculostomy (EVD) alone without clot evacuation

Correct. Cerebellar haemorrhage with clot >3 cm causing fourth ventricular compression or hydrocephalus, with neurological deterioration, is the clearest surgical indication in haemorrhagic stroke. Posterior fossa decompression and clot evacuation can be life-saving and is the standard of care. EVD alone does not address the mass lesion and risks upward herniation. Alteplase is absolutely contraindicated in haemorrhagic stroke.

Surgical indications in ICH: (1) Cerebellar haemorrhage >3 cm + mass effect/deterioration = urgent posterior fossa surgery. (2) Lobar haemorrhage >30 mL within 1 cm of cortex + herniation risk. Basal ganglia and thalamic ICH: generally medical management. Brainstem ICH: surgery rarely beneficial.

Cerebellar haemorrhage >3 cm with mass effect and deteriorating consciousness = urgent surgical indication. Posterior fossa decompression and clot evacuation is the treatment of choice. EVD alone without clot evacuation risks upward transtentorial herniation. Alteplase is absolutely contraindicated.

Click to reveal answer

Q10 IM18.16 1 pt

In a STROKE counselling session, a patient's family asks about resuming driving and returning to work after a mild ischaemic stroke. Which response MOST accurately reflects appropriate post-stroke counselling?

A Driving can be resumed immediately once symptoms have resolved — TIA is different from stroke
B No restriction on driving applies because the patient had a mild stroke without visual field loss
C Driving should be deferred for at least one month after stroke; return to work depends on residual deficits and job demands; further stroke risk should be addressed first
D Formal neuropsychological evaluation is not needed before return to work if motor function has recovered
E Sexual activity must be permanently restricted after any ischaemic stroke

Correct. Post-stroke counselling on driving and work: Indian Motor Vehicles Act restricts driving after stroke — typically a minimum of 1 month after a first-ever TIA/minor stroke (longer if any residual deficit or seizure). Return to work depends on the nature of the job (cognitive demand, physical demand), presence of residual cognitive or motor deficits, and optimisation of secondary prevention. Neuropsychological assessment may be required before returning to cognitively demanding work. Driving with persistent visual field defects is prohibited regardless of time elapsed.

Post-stroke counselling: driving deferred at least 1 month (Motor Vehicles Act, India); no driving if visual field defect persists. Return to work: assess cognitive and motor residua + job demands. Sexual activity can resume when medically stable (usually within weeks). Secondary prevention adherence is the priority counselling point.

Post-stroke driving restriction: defer for at least 1 month (longer if residual deficits or seizures). Return to work depends on residual deficits, cognitive function, and job demands. Neuropsychological evaluation is important for cognitively demanding roles. Secondary prevention must be optimised before any return to normal activities.

Click to reveal answer

Q11 IM18.12 1 pt

A 55-year-old man with hypertension and new-onset AF presents with a right MCA territory stroke. Echocardiogram shows a left atrial thrombus. Which of the following statements about anticoagulation timing in acute cardioembolic stroke is MOST accurate?

A Anticoagulation with a DOAC should be started immediately on day 1 to prevent early recurrence
B The optimal timing follows the 1-3-6-12 rule based on stroke severity (TIA, mild, moderate, severe) measured by NIHSS and infarct size
C Anticoagulation should always be deferred for 4 weeks in all cardioembolic stroke patients
D Warfarin is preferred over DOAC in AF-related stroke because INR can be monitored
E Anticoagulation is contraindicated if the infarct size is larger than 1/3 of the MCA territory on CT

Correct. The 1-3-6-12 day rule for initiating anticoagulation in cardioembolic stroke: TIA = anticoagulate on day 1; mild stroke (NIHSS <8, small infarct) = day 3; moderate stroke (NIHSS 8-15, moderate infarct) = day 6; severe stroke (NIHSS >15, large infarct) = day 12. This balances early recurrence risk against haemorrhagic transformation risk. DOAC (e.g. apixaban, rivaroxaban) is preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF. Infarct size >1/3 MCA territory increases haemorrhagic risk but is a relative, not absolute, contraindication to anticoagulation — timing is deferred, not permanently withheld.

Cardioembolic stroke anticoagulation timing (1-3-6-12 rule): TIA=day 1, mild NIHSS <8=day 3, moderate NIHSS 8-15=day 6, severe NIHSS >15=day 12. DOAC preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF. Balance recurrence risk vs haemorrhagic transformation.

The 1-3-6-12 rule governs anticoagulation timing in cardioembolic stroke: TIA day 1, mild stroke day 3, moderate day 6, severe day 12. DOAC is preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF. Large infarct does not permanently contraindicate anticoagulation — it delays initiation.

Click to reveal answer

Q12 IM18.10 1 pt

In the acute phase of ischaemic stroke, which of the following oxygen saturation and blood glucose management targets is CORRECT?

A Supplemental oxygen should be given routinely to all stroke patients to maximise cerebral oxygenation
B Supplemental O2 only if SpO2 falls below 94%; blood glucose should be maintained between 4-11 mmol/L
C Supplemental O2 targeting SpO2 >98%; blood glucose should be tightly controlled below 6 mmol/L
D Hyperglycaemia up to 15 mmol/L is permissible in the acute phase as hypoglycaemia is more dangerous
E O2 via mask should be maintained for 48 hours regardless of SpO2 to maintain cerebral metabolism

Correct. Acute stroke supportive care for oxygenation and glucose: (1) Supplemental oxygen is given ONLY if SpO2 <94% — routine oxygen in non-hypoxic stroke patients does NOT improve outcomes and may be harmful (IST-3, SO2S trials). (2) Blood glucose should be maintained between 4-11 mmol/L — both hyperglycaemia and hypoglycaemia worsen penumbral injury. Tight glucose control below 6 mmol/L risks hypoglycaemia which is independently harmful. These are standard AHA/ASA and ESO guidelines.

Acute stroke supportive care: O2 only if SpO2 <94% (not routinely). Glucose target 4-11 mmol/L. Temperature <37.5 C (treat fever). BP: permissive (up to 220/120) if no thrombolysis; <185/110 if thrombolysis given. Swallowing screen before oral intake.

Acute stroke oxygen: only if SpO2 <94% — routine O2 in non-hypoxic patients does not improve outcomes. Glucose target: 4-11 mmol/L — both hyperglycaemia (worsens penumbra) and hypoglycaemia (neuronal toxicity) must be avoided. Tight glucose <6 mmol/L risks harm from hypoglycaemia.

Click to reveal answer