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SU10.1-4 | Perioperative Management — Graded Quiz

Graded 8 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 SU10.1 1 pt

A patient is being prepared for elective surgery. Which statement best reflects the governing principle of perioperative management?

A Surgical outcome depends almost entirely on the operative skill of the surgeon
B Outcome depends more on the system of perioperative care than on operative skill alone, and most surgical harm is preventable
C Risk stratification is unnecessary if the operation is minor
D The postoperative phase rarely contributes to surgical harm

Correct. Outcome depends far more on the system of care than on operative skill alone, and most preventable surgical harm lives in the perioperative pathway — hence structured risk stratification and safety systems.

Most surgical harm is preventable and managed through the perioperative system of care.

Perioperative management exists because outcome depends on the SYSTEM of care, not operative skill alone, and most surgical harm is preventable across all three phases.

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Q2 SU10.1 1 pt

The WHO Surgical Safety Checklist 'Sign In' is completed at which moment, and what is one of its core checks?

A After the patient leaves theatre; confirming specimen labelling
B Before induction of anaesthesia; confirming patient identity, site, procedure and consent
C Just before skin incision; counting swabs and instruments
D On the postoperative ward; reviewing analgesia

Correct. Sign In occurs before induction of anaesthesia and confirms patient identity, surgical site, procedure and consent (and anaesthetic safety checks).

Sign In (pre-induction) confirms identity, site, procedure and consent.

Sign In is performed before induction and confirms identity, site, procedure and consent. Swab/instrument counts and specimen labelling belong to Time Out / Sign Out.

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Q3 SU10.1 1 pt

A first-day postoperative patient has a heart rate of 120, blood pressure 118/96 mmHg, and feels anxious. What does the narrowed pulse pressure most likely indicate?

A The patient is haemodynamically stable and needs no further assessment
B Early, compensated hypovolaemia/haemorrhage that requires prompt assessment
C An expected normal postoperative finding
D A definite diagnosis of myocardial infarction

Correct. Tachycardia with a narrowed pulse pressure and a near-normal systolic pressure is early compensated hypovolaemia — the blood pressure is falsely reassuring and the patient needs prompt assessment.

Tachycardia + narrowed pulse pressure = early haemorrhage; do not be reassured by a normal BP.

Tachycardia plus a narrowed pulse pressure with a still-normal BP signals early compensated hypovolaemia/haemorrhage — not stability. Act promptly.

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Q4 SU10.2 1 pt

Capacity to consent is decision-specific. Which statement correctly describes how capacity should be assessed?

A Capacity is a fixed global attribute — a patient either has it for all decisions or none
B Capacity is assessed for this particular decision at this particular time: can the patient understand, retain, weigh the information and communicate a choice?
C Capacity is determined solely by the patient's age
D A diagnosis of mental illness automatically removes capacity

Correct. Capacity is decision- and time-specific: the patient must be able to understand, retain and weigh the relevant information and communicate a choice. A diagnosis or age alone does not remove capacity.

Capacity = understand, retain, weigh, communicate — for THIS decision, NOW.

Capacity is assessed for the specific decision at the specific time — understand, retain, weigh, communicate. It is neither global nor determined by age or diagnosis alone.

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Q5 SU10.2 1 pt

An unconscious adult with no available next of kin needs immediate life-saving surgery for a ruptured viscus. What is the correct course of action regarding consent?

A Delay surgery indefinitely until a relative can be found to sign the form
B Proceed under the doctrine of necessity/emergency, providing life-saving treatment in the patient's best interests
C Obtain telephone consent from any acquaintance of the patient
D Treat only after the patient regains consciousness, regardless of the delay

Correct. In a genuine emergency where the patient cannot consent and no valid surrogate is available, life-saving treatment may proceed in the patient's best interests under the doctrine of necessity.

Emergency + incapacity + no surrogate = treat in best interests under necessity.

For an incapacitated patient needing emergency life-saving care with no surrogate, treatment proceeds in the patient's best interests under the emergency/necessity principle — not delayed.

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Q6 SU10.3 1 pt

A student is scrubbing in to assist. Which action is consistent with maintaining the sterile field?

A Keeping scrubbed hands below the level of the waist after gowning
B Keeping scrubbed, gloved hands above waist level and in front of the body, and touching only sterile items
C Turning your back to the sterile trolley to talk to the circulating nurse
D Adjusting your mask with gloved hands during the operation

Correct. After scrubbing, gowning and gloving, keep hands above the waist and in front of the body, and contact only sterile surfaces. Anything below the waist or behind is considered non-sterile.

Scrubbed hands stay above the waist, in front, and touch only sterile items.

Sterile technique requires hands kept above waist level and in front, touching only sterile items. Dropping hands below the waist, turning the back to the field, or touching the mask breaks sterility.

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Q7 SU10.4 1 pt

A 70 kg adult needs local anaesthesia for a laceration repair. Using lignocaine WITH adrenaline, what is the maximum safe dose?

A 3 mg/kg, i.e. up to about 210 mg
B 7 mg/kg, i.e. up to about 490 mg
C 2 mg/kg, i.e. up to about 140 mg
D 12 mg/kg, i.e. up to about 840 mg

Correct. With adrenaline the lignocaine ceiling rises to 7 mg/kg (about 490 mg in a 70 kg adult) because vasoconstriction slows systemic absorption. Plain lignocaine remains 3 mg/kg.

Lignocaine with adrenaline = 7 mg/kg; plain = 3 mg/kg; bupivacaine = 2 mg/kg.

Lignocaine with adrenaline allows up to 7 mg/kg (about 490 mg at 70 kg); plain lignocaine is 3 mg/kg and bupivacaine 2 mg/kg. Always calculate per kg.

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Q8 SU10.4 1 pt

A clean surgical incision is being closed in a healthy patient with well-apposed, uncontaminated wound edges. Which type of wound healing is intended, and what is its defining feature?

A Healing by secondary intention — the wound is left open to granulate and contract
B Healing by primary intention — clean wound edges are apposed (e.g. sutured) for direct healing
C Delayed primary closure — the wound is closed several days after initial debridement
D Healing without any approximation, relying solely on antibiotics

Correct. Primary intention is closure of a clean wound with apposed edges (suturing) for direct, rapid healing with minimal scar. Secondary intention leaves the wound open to granulate; delayed primary closure waits a few days.

Primary intention = clean, apposed edges closed for direct healing.

Apposing clean wound edges (e.g. suturing) is healing by primary intention. Leaving a wound open to granulate is secondary intention; closing after a few days is delayed primary closure.

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