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MI3.1-9 | Bloodstream & Cardiovascular Infections — Practice Quiz

Practice 10 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 MI3.1 1 pt

A 14-year-old boy presents with fever, migratory polyarthritis, and a new pansystolic murmur 3 weeks after a sore throat. His antistreptolysin O (ASO) titre is 400 IU/mL (normal <200). Anti-DNase B titre is also elevated. Which mechanism best explains his cardiac injury?

A Direct invasion of cardiac muscle by Streptococcus pyogenes
B Molecular mimicry between M-protein antibodies and cardiac antigens
C Deposition of streptococcal exotoxins in valve leaflets
D Immune complex deposition from skin GABHS infection

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Q2 MI3.1 1 pt

A patient with rheumatic fever is evaluated using the Jones Criteria. Which of the following combinations satisfies the diagnostic requirement for a first episode?

A Carditis + arthralgia + elevated ESR + positive throat culture
B Carditis + polyarthritis + evidence of prior GABHS infection
C Sydenham's chorea + arthralgia + prolonged PR interval
D Erythema marginatum + fever + elevated CRP

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Q3 MI3.4 1 pt

In a patient with suspected rheumatic fever presenting 4 weeks after a sore throat, the ASO titre is 180 IU/mL (borderline). What is the most appropriate next step to strengthen evidence of prior GABHS infection?

A Repeat throat culture for GABHS
B Request anti-DNase B titre
C Request streptozyme (combined streptococcal antibody) test
D Repeat ASO titre after 2 weeks

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Q4 MI3.3 1 pt

A 45-year-old with a prosthetic aortic valve develops fever and rigors. Three blood cultures drawn from separate venepuncture sites over 24 hours all grow Staphylococcus aureus. Echocardiography shows a perivalvular abscess. According to Duke's criteria, what is the diagnosis?

A Possible infective endocarditis
B Definite infective endocarditis by pathological criteria
C Definite infective endocarditis by clinical criteria
D Rejected infective endocarditis

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Q5 MI3.3 1 pt

During blood culture collection for suspected infective endocarditis, the nurse draws all three sets from a single arm vein over 10 minutes, with the patient afebrile at the time. Which statement best evaluates the adequacy of this collection?

A Adequate — timing relative to fever spikes does not matter in IE because bacteraemia is continuous
B Inadequate — all sets should have been drawn during fever spikes to maximise yield
C Adequate in timing but inadequate in technique — separate venepuncture sites are required to reduce skin-contaminant false positives
D Adequate — single-site collection is acceptable when strict aseptic technique is used

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Q6 MI3.7 1 pt

A 28-year-old traveller returns from Bihar with 10 days of fever. He has a temperature of 39.5°C, pulse 72 bpm, and rose spots on his trunk. Which laboratory test has the highest sensitivity at this stage of enteric fever?

A Widal test (TO and TH agglutinins)
B Blood culture in bile broth
C Stool culture
D Bone marrow culture

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Q7 MI3.8 1 pt

A Widal test performed on a patient from Chennai with 5 days of fever shows O agglutinin titre 1:80 and H agglutinin titre 1:160. The patient denies prior typhoid vaccination. How should these results be interpreted?

A Diagnostic of typhoid fever — O titre ≥1:80 confirms active infection
B Diagnostic of prior typhoid vaccination — H titre elevation without O elevation indicates immunity
C Non-diagnostic — baseline endemic titres in India may be 1:80 to 1:160; paired samples or alternative testing is needed
D Diagnostic of paratyphoid fever — H titre elevation indicates H. Para A or B infection

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Q8 MI3.9 1 pt

A 32-year-old woman from Kerala presents with 3 weeks of fever, mild jaundice, and mild anaemia (Hb 9.5 g/dL). Peripheral blood smear shows ring-form trophozoites in erythrocytes, some with multiple rings per cell. Urinalysis reveals haemoglobinuria. Which mechanism of anaemia is operating here?

A Bone marrow suppression by Plasmodium falciparum
B Intravascular haemolysis of parasitised and bystander erythrocytes
C Nutritional iron deficiency secondary to chronic fever
D Megaloblastic change due to folate consumption by the parasite

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Q9 MI3.9 1 pt

A 25-year-old patient with sickle cell disease develops an acute aplastic crisis with sudden drop in haemoglobin from 8 to 3 g/dL and reticulocyte count near zero. No new Plasmodium infection is found. Which pathogen is most likely responsible?

A Epstein-Barr virus
B Parvovirus B19
C Cytomegalovirus
D Clostridium perfringens

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Q10 MI3.5 1 pt

A 50-year-old man with cryptogenic cirrhosis presents with fever 38.3°C for 3 weeks. Multiple investigations including routine blood cultures, chest X-ray, urine culture, abdominal ultrasound, and anti-malarial smear are all negative after 7 days of thorough inpatient workup. Which category of PUO does this represent?

A Classic PUO
B Healthcare-associated PUO
C Immunodeficient PUO
D HIV-associated PUO

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