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MI8.{1-2,4} | Genitourinary & Sexually Transmitted Infections — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 MI8.4 1 pt

A 22-year-old sexually active woman presents with dysuria and frequency. Urine culture grows >10⁵ CFU/mL of a gram-positive coccus in clusters, coagulase-negative, that ferments mannitol and is novobiocin-resistant. Which statement about this organism's role in UTI is MOST accurate?

A It is the most common cause of community-acquired UTI in all age groups
B It is particularly prevalent in sexually active young women and resolves without treatment in most cases
C It is the second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in sexually active young women, aged 16–25 years
D It requires a suprapubic aspirate for definitive diagnosis due to its common skin colonisation

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Q2 MI8.4 1 pt

A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is admitted with fever, rigors, and flank pain. He was catheterised for 3 days during a recent hospitalisation. Urine culture grows >10⁵ CFU/mL of a gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive, non-lactose fermenting, and produces a distinctive grape-like odour. Which is the MOST appropriate initial antibiotic choice pending susceptibility results?

A Nitrofurantoin
B Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C Piperacillin-tazobactam
D Amoxicillin-clavulanate

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Q3 MI8.4 1 pt

A pregnant woman at 14 weeks is found to have asymptomatic bacteriuria (E. coli 10⁵ CFU/mL) on routine antenatal urine culture. She is afebrile with no urinary symptoms. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

A Repeat urine culture at 28 weeks; treat only if symptomatic
B Start a 5–7 day course of nitrofurantoin and confirm eradication with test-of-cure culture
C Prescribe phenazopyridine for symptomatic relief and recheck at the next antenatal visit
D No treatment needed; asymptomatic bacteriuria is physiological in pregnancy

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Q4 MI8.2 1 pt

A 24-year-old man presents with copious purulent urethral discharge and dysuria for 3 days. Gram stain of urethral discharge shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci within polymorphonuclear leucocytes. NAAT confirms the causative agent. The MOST appropriate treatment regimen, given current resistance patterns, is:

A Oral ciprofloxacin 500 mg single dose
B Intramuscular ceftriaxone 500 mg single dose PLUS azithromycin 1 g orally single dose
C Oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
D Intramuscular penicillin G single dose

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Q5 MI8.2 1 pt

A 28-year-old commercial sex worker presents with a painful, soft, dirty-based ulcer with ragged undermined edges on the labia. She has tender, fluctuant unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy (bubo). Dark-field microscopy is negative. Which organism is MOST likely responsible, and what is the recommended treatment?

A Treponema pallidum — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM single dose
B Haemophilus ducreyi — azithromycin 1 g oral single dose or ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
C HSV-2 — oral acyclovir 400 mg three times daily for 7 days
D Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1-L3 — doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 21 days

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Q6 MI8.1 1 pt

A 30-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge and vulvar pruritus. Examination reveals curdy white discharge and erythematous vaginal mucosa. KOH preparation shows budding yeast cells with pseudohyphae. She reports 3 similar episodes in the past 12 months. Which of the following predisposing factors is MOST directly responsible for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A Regular use of condoms
B Uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus
C Daily bath with soap
D Hormonal contraceptive use for 6 months

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Q7 MI8.2 1 pt

A 35-year-old asymptomatic blood donor is found to have RPR reactive at 1:8. TPHA is also positive. He has no history of syphilis treatment. His CD4 count and HIV test are normal. What is the MOST likely stage of syphilis and the recommended treatment?

A Primary syphilis — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM single dose
B Latent syphilis of unknown duration — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM weekly for 3 doses
C Secondary syphilis — doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 14 days
D Tertiary syphilis — aqueous penicillin G 3–4 MU IV every 4 hours for 10–14 days

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Q8 MI8.2 1 pt

A newborn's blood VDRL at birth is reactive at 1:4. The mother was diagnosed with syphilis at 32 weeks and received a full course of benzathine penicillin. The newborn is asymptomatic. What is the CORRECT interpretation of the newborn's VDRL result?

A The newborn has congenital syphilis and requires immediate IV penicillin treatment
B Maternal IgG antibodies passively transferred across the placenta can cause a positive VDRL in the newborn, which should decline over 3 months
C A reactive neonatal VDRL always confirms active congenital syphilis regardless of maternal treatment
D The VDRL result is unreliable in neonates; TPHA should be used for definitive diagnosis

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Q9 MI8.2 1 pt

A 26-year-old man presents for HIV testing 3 weeks after a high-risk sexual exposure. Which fourth-generation HIV test strategy is CORRECT for this timing?

A Western blot must be used as the first-line test to avoid false-positive ELISA results at this early stage
B A 4th-generation Ag/Ab combo ELISA detects HIV p24 antigen earlier than antibody-only tests and can be positive as early as 2–4 weeks post-exposure; a negative result at 3 weeks does not exclude infection
C A negative ELISA at 3 weeks definitively excludes HIV infection, and no follow-up testing is needed
D Only a CD4 count and viral load are relevant this early; serology is unreliable before 6 weeks

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Q10 MI8.2 1 pt

A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 8 weeks gestation is screened and found to be HBsAg-positive, HBeAg-positive, and anti-HBc-positive. Her newborn is at HIGHEST risk for which outcome if not given immediate prophylaxis?

A Acute fulminant hepatitis B in the first week of life
B Chronic HBV carriage, with >90% risk of chronicity due to immune tolerance in the neonate
C Spontaneous clearance within 6 months without any long-term sequelae
D Vertical transmission risk is only 5% regardless of maternal HBeAg status

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Q11 MI8.1 1 pt

A 19-year-old woman presents with a vaginal discharge that is homogeneous, grey-white, and fishy-smelling. Wet mount shows epithelial cells studded with coccobacilli ('clue cells'). pH of vaginal secretion is 5.5. Whiff (amine) test is positive. Which organism is the PRIMARY driver of this condition, and what is the recommended treatment?

A Trichomonas vaginalis — metronidazole 2 g oral single dose; partner must be treated
B Gardnerella vaginalis (and anaerobic shift) — metronidazole 400 mg oral twice daily for 7 days; partner treatment is NOT routinely required
C Candida albicans — intravaginal clotrimazole pessary 500 mg single dose; avoid oral azoles in first trimester
D Neisseria gonorrhoeae — ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose plus azithromycin 1 g oral

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Q12 MI8.1 1 pt

A 38-year-old male truck driver presents with haematuria (blood in urine seen at the END of micturition), without dysuria or fever. He reports spending the past 10 years near freshwater bodies in Bihar. Urine microscopy reveals oval ova with a terminal spine. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment?

A Schistosoma mansoni infection — praziquantel 40 mg/kg as a single dose
B Schistosoma haematobium infection — praziquantel 40 mg/kg as a single or split dose
C Renal tuberculosis — antitubercular therapy for 6–9 months
D Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder — cystoscopy and biopsy for confirmation

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