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MI2.1-8 | Immunology: Basic, Applied & Immunological Disorders — Practice Quiz

Practice 10 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 MI2.3 1 pt

A 28-year-old patient presents with high fever and productive cough for 5 days. Sputum culture grows Streptococcus pneumoniae. Which immunological mechanism provides the most effective primary defence against this extracellular encapsulated bacterium?

A CD8+ cytotoxic T-lymphocyte activity
B Opsonisation by IgG and complement-mediated phagocytosis
C Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction
D NK cell-mediated ADCC targeting capsular polysaccharide

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Q2 MI2.2 1 pt

A student reads that IgM appears first after primary infection, whereas IgG appears later and persists. Which structural feature of IgM best explains its superior early complement activation ability?

A IgM contains a J-chain that links two monomers into a dimer
B IgM is a pentamer with 10 antigen-binding sites, providing high avidity for C1q binding
C IgM has a longer half-life than IgG, sustaining complement activity
D IgM crosses the placenta and pre-activates complement in the fetus

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Q3 MI2.4 1 pt

A tuberculin (Mantoux) test is performed on a nursing student who has received BCG vaccination. At 72 hours, she shows 14 mm of induration. Which cells mediate this reaction?

A IgE-sensitised mast cells releasing histamine
B CD4+ Th1 cells and macrophages
C IgG-antigen complexes activating complement
D CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes and NK cells

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Q4 MI2.1 1 pt

A 5-year-old child in Rajasthan is brought with fever and rash after exposure to a dengue cluster. Dengue NS1 antigen and IgM are positive. Which type of immune response provides the most effective long-term protection after recovery?

A Innate immunity mediated by natural killer cells
B Type I interferons produced by virus-infected cells
C Adaptive humoral immunity with long-lived memory B cells and neutralising IgG
D Complement activation via the alternative pathway

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Q5 MI2.5 1 pt

A laboratory reports an ELISA result as 'reactive for anti-HIV antibodies' in a sample sent from a blood bank. Which principle underlies ELISA in this context?

A Visible precipitation band formed at the zone of antigen-antibody equivalence
B Clumping of latex particles coated with HIV antigens when patient antibodies bind
C Enzyme-linked antibody binding to antigen produces a measurable colour change
D Complement fixation preventing haemolysis of sensitised red blood cells

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Q6 MI2.6 1 pt

A 22-year-old medical student is given a booster dose of hepatitis B vaccine 10 years after primary vaccination. Two weeks later, her anti-HBs titre rises rapidly to protective levels. Which immunological phenomenon best explains this rapid anamnestic response?

A Activation of innate NK cells that recognise HBsAg
B De novo clonal expansion of naïve B cells encountering HBsAg for the first time
C Rapid activation of long-lived memory B cells and T helper cells from primary vaccination
D Passive transfer of maternal anti-HBs antibodies across the placenta

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Q7 MI2.7 1 pt

A 35-year-old asthmatic patient develops severe bronchospasm within 15 minutes of receiving amoxicillin-clavulanate injection. Which cell type and mediator are primarily responsible for this immediate reaction?

A Neutrophils releasing leukotriene B4 via C5a stimulation
B IgE-sensitised mast cells degranulating and releasing histamine
C Th2 cells secreting IL-4 and activating eosinophils
D IgG immune complexes depositing in bronchial basement membrane

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Q8 MI2.7 1 pt

A 4-year-old boy has had four episodes of pneumococcal sepsis and one episode of Haemophilus influenzae meningitis. His serum immunoglobulins show: IgG 120 mg/dL (normal: 540-1822), IgA undetectable, IgM undetectable. Pre-B cells are present in bone marrow. Which diagnosis best fits?

A DiGeorge syndrome (thymic aplasia)
B X-linked agammaglobulinaemia (Bruton's disease)
C Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
D Selective IgA deficiency

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Q9 MI2.6 1 pt

India launched the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine (Cervarix/Gardasil) for adolescent girls. The vaccine protects against HPV serotypes 16 and 18 which cause 70% of cervical cancers. This vaccine is best classified as:

A Passive immunisation using pre-formed anti-HPV antibodies
B Attenuated live HPV vaccine stimulating both humoral and CMI
C Recombinant subunit vaccine using virus-like particles (VLPs) to elicit neutralising IgG
D Toxoid vaccine using inactivated HPV oncoproteins E6 and E7

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Q10 MI2.5 1 pt

A VDRL test returns a high titre positive in a 25-year-old woman attending antenatal care. A confirmatory TPHA (Treponema pallidum haemagglutination assay) is negative. Which is the most likely explanation?

A She has latent syphilis with serological scar
B The VDRL is a biological false positive due to cross-reacting anti-cardiolipin antibodies
C She has very early primary syphilis where TPHA is not yet reactive
D Prozone phenomenon is making the VDRL falsely negative

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