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MI5.1-5 | Musculoskeletal, Skin & Soft-Tissue Infections — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 MI5.1 1 pt

A 45-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of a puncture wound on his foot with progressive pain, bronze-green discolouration of the overlying skin, and a sweet, foul odour. X-ray shows gas in soft tissues. Gram stain of wound exudate reveals Gram-positive rods WITHOUT pus cells, and culture on blood agar under anaerobic conditions shows double-zone haemolysis. Which toxin is primarily responsible for the rapid tissue destruction seen in this organism?

A Tetanospasmin — blocks inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord
B Alpha toxin (lecithinase/phospholipase C) — cleaves membrane phospholipids causing myonecrosis and haemolysis
C Botulinum toxin — cleaves SNARE proteins inhibiting acetylcholine release
D Streptokinase — dissolves fibrin barriers enabling rapid spread

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Q2 MI5.1 1 pt

A 28-year-old unvaccinated man presents with a 2-day history of difficulty opening his mouth (trismus), neck stiffness, and painful spasms of the back triggered by noise. Vital signs: temp 37.8°C. The wound entry site was a minor abrasion sustained 12 days ago. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis is NORMAL. Which of the following BEST explains why CSF is normal in this condition?

A The organism directly invades the meninges and produces local inflammation only
B The toxin acts on peripheral motor nerves only and does not reach the CNS
C C. tetani is non-invasive and remains at the wound site; the toxin travels retrogradely via motor nerves to the CNS without causing meningitis
D The incubation period is too short for meningeal inflammation to develop

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Q3 MI5.2 1 pt

A 7-year-old girl presents with fever and acute onset of severe pain and swelling of the right knee. She had a throat infection 2 weeks ago that resolved without antibiotic treatment. Joint aspiration yields 60,000 WBC/mm3 (95% neutrophils), low glucose, high protein. Gram stain shows Gram-positive cocci in chains. Blood culture is positive for the same organism. Which is the MOST likely organism, and what is its mechanism of joint damage?

A Streptococcus pyogenes — M protein mediates molecular mimicry causing non-suppurative reactive arthritis
B Streptococcus pyogenes — haematogenous seeding with direct bacterial invasion and neutrophil-mediated cartilage destruction via proteolytic enzymes
C Staphylococcus aureus — protein A binds IgG and activates complement causing septic arthritis
D Streptococcus pneumoniae — capsular polysaccharide inhibits phagocytosis allowing joint colonisation

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Q4 MI5.2 1 pt

An HIV-positive patient (CD4 count 85 cells/uL) develops a chronic swelling of the right knee with multiple draining sinuses. Aspirated fluid shows large, thick-walled spherical cells that reproduce by broad-based budding. Histopathology reveals mixed granulomatous and suppurative inflammation. Which organism MOST likely causes this presentation of fungal osteomyelitis/arthritis?

A Aspergillus fumigatus — produces septate hyphae with branching at 45 degrees
B Blastomyces dermatitidis — large, thick-walled spherical yeast with broad-based budding
C Cryptococcus neoformans — narrow-based budding encapsulated yeast, polysaccharide capsule
D Candida albicans — pseudohyphae and blastospores, opportunistic in immunosuppressed

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Q5 MI5.2 1 pt

A 60-year-old man who was treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 5 years ago presents with back pain, fever, and progressive lower limb weakness. MRI shows vertebral body destruction at L2–L3 with a paravertebral cold abscess. There is no local heat or tenderness over the spine. Which feature BEST explains why the abscess remains cold in this infection?

A The abscess is old and fibrosed, with calcification reducing the inflammatory response
B MTB suppresses the acute inflammatory response via its cell-wall lipids (cord factor, mycolic acids), resulting in a chronic granulomatous rather than acute pyogenic reaction
C The vertebral location prevents adequate vascular supply and thus limits the inflammatory response
D Prior TB treatment has rendered the organism non-viable so inflammation is minimal

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Q6 MI5.3 1 pt

A 4-year-old child presents with multiple vesicles, pustules, and honey-coloured crusts on the face and around the nares. The mother also notes some large, flaccid bullae on the trunk. Nikolsky sign is positive over the bullous lesions. Which statement BEST explains the pathogenesis of the bullae in this patient?

A Streptococcus pyogenes erythrogenic toxin causes bullae by activating complement via the alternate pathway
B Staphylococcus aureus exfoliatin (epidermolytic toxin A/B) cleaves desmoglein-1 in the stratum granulosum causing intraepidermal cleavage and flaccid bullae
C HSV glycoproteins trigger autoimmune IgG deposition at the dermoepidermal junction causing subepidermal bullae
D Staphylococcal protein A binds the Fc portion of IgG activating mast cells and releasing histamine causing bullae

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Q7 MI5.5 1 pt

A 40-year-old patient presents with numerous, symmetric, poorly defined infiltrated plaques and nodules over the face, ears, and extremities. Sensation is intact over all lesions. Nasal scrapings reveal numerous acid-fast bacilli on Ziehl-Neelsen stain. Slit-skin smear shows a Bacteriological Index (BI) of +5. Lepromin test is negative. Which cell-mediated immune defect MOST accurately characterises this patient's immune status in the context of leprosy?

A High CMI with Th1 predominance — strong granuloma formation containing the bacilli
B Absent or markedly deficient CMI specific to M. leprae antigens, with Th2 predominance allowing uncontrolled bacillary multiplication
C Absent CMI due to HIV-induced CD4 T-cell depletion unrelated to M. leprae-specific immunity
D Moderate CMI with mixed Th1/Th2 response producing borderline leprosy at the tuberculoid end

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Q8 MI5.5 1 pt

A dermatology resident biopsies a skin lesion from a patient with suspected leprosy. Haematoxylin and eosin staining shows a clear band of uninvolved collagen between the epidermis and the underlying granulomatous infiltrate filled with foamy macrophages containing numerous acid-fast bacilli. What is this histopathological finding called, and in which type of leprosy is it characteristically found?

A Darier sign — found in tuberculoid leprosy
B Grenz zone — found in lepromatous leprosy
C Koebner phenomenon — found in borderline leprosy
D Langhans giant cell band — found in tuberculoid leprosy

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Q9 MI5.4 1 pt

A clinician is assessing a patient with skin lesions and must determine whether the lesion is infective or non-infective before ordering investigations. Which combination of clinical features would MOST strongly suggest an INFECTIVE aetiology rather than a non-infective dermatological condition?

A Symmetrical distribution, strong family history of similar lesions, involvement of extensor surfaces, silvery scales with Auspitz sign
B Acute onset, localised heat, erythema, tenderness, presence of pustules with regional lymphadenopathy, and recent history of skin trauma
C Chronic pruritic eczematous plaques in flexural areas, associated seasonal rhinitis, elevated serum IgE
D Multiple hypopigmented macules appearing after UV exposure, no itching, no lymphadenopathy, Koebner phenomenon positive

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Q10 MI5.3 1 pt

A 35-year-old returned traveller from Sub-Saharan Africa develops a painless, rapidly enlarging ulcer on the forearm with undermined, irregular edges and overlying skin that is serosanguineous but not frankly purulent. The lesion is painless despite extensive necrosis. Biopsy shows fat cell necrosis with ghost outlines of adipocytes and no significant inflammatory infiltrate. AFB stain is positive. Which organism and its key virulence mechanism BEST accounts for this presentation?

A Mycobacterium tuberculosis — caseating granuloma with central necrosis and Langhans giant cells
B Mycobacterium leprae — intracellular multiplication in Schwann cells causing painless ulceration
C Mycobacterium ulcerans — mycolactone toxin causes immunosuppression and painless fat/tissue necrosis without significant inflammation (Buruli ulcer)
D Mycobacterium marinum — fish-tank granuloma with suppurative inflammation after aquatic exposure

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Q11 MI5.2 1 pt

A 55-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus develops a chronic, non-healing ulcer on his right foot after a minor injury. Over 6 weeks, he develops fever, bone pain, and imaging shows periosteal elevation with a sequestrum surrounded by involucrum at the 1st metatarsal. Blood culture grows Gram-positive cocci in clusters. Bone biopsy confirms osteomyelitis. Which of the following BEST explains how a sequestrum forms in chronic osteomyelitis?

A Excessive osteoblast activity triggered by bacterial toxins creates a dense reactive new bone shell
B Bacterial exotoxins lyse cortical bone directly, producing central cavitation
C Elevated intramedullary pressure from suppurative exudate occludes the nutrient artery and periosteal vessels, leading to avascular necrosis of a segment of cortical bone
D Polymorphonuclear leucocytes directly dissolve cortical bone via elastase and collagenase secretion

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Q12 MI5.5 1 pt

A 32-year-old patient with multibacillary leprosy on WHO-MDT for 8 months suddenly develops acutely tender, erythematous nodules over the forearms and trunk with high fever, arthralgia, iritis, and a positive urine for protein. Nerve conduction studies show acute peripheral neuropathy. What is this acute complication, and which immunological mechanism underlies it?

A Type 1 (reversal) reaction — delayed-type hypersensitivity (Th1 CMI upgrade) against M. leprae antigens in tissues
B Type 2 (Erythema Nodosum Leprosum — ENL) reaction — immune complex deposition (Type III hypersensitivity) with complement activation
C Lucio phenomenon — widespread endothelial invasion by M. leprae causing thrombotic vasculopathy
D Dapsone hypersensitivity syndrome — drug-induced DRESS reaction with systemic eosinophilia

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