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MI7.1-5 | Respiratory Tract Infections — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 MI7.3 1 pt

A 65-year-old retired farmer from Rajasthan presents with 5 days of productive cough, fever 39°C, and dyspnoea. Pulse 110/min, RR 28/min, BUN 24 mg/dL, SpO2 88%. His chest X-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. Using CURB-65, how many points does this patient score, and what is the appropriate management?

A 2 points — outpatient oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
B 3 points — inpatient management with parenteral antibiotics
C 4 points — ICU admission with dual anti-Pseudomonal coverage
D 1 point — outpatient oral azithromycin monotherapy

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Q2 MI7.2 1 pt

A 28-year-old construction worker is admitted with high-grade fever, dry cough, and myalgia after returning from a conference at a luxury hotel in Pune. His urine is sent for Legionella antigen testing, which returns positive. Which statement best explains why urinary antigen testing is the preferred rapid diagnostic tool for this infection?

A L. pneumophila produces a lipopolysaccharide antigen that is shed in urine and remains detectable for weeks
B Legionella grows well in routine urine cultures, allowing rapid identification
C The antigen is filtered by the glomerulus as an immune complex, indicating active bacteraemia
D Urine antigen detects all 15 serogroups with equal sensitivity

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Q3 MI7.2 1 pt

A 4-month-old infant in a government hospital NICU develops worsening tachypnoea and hypoxia. On auscultation, fine bilateral crackles are heard. Nasopharyngeal aspirate is sent for direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) testing, which is positive for a paramyxovirus. Which of the following statements about this pathogen is most accurate?

A It causes bronchiolitis primarily via IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
B Palivizumab, a humanised monoclonal antibody against the F protein, reduces hospitalisation in high-risk infants
C Treatment includes ribavirin oral therapy for all hospitalised infants
D DFA testing is less sensitive than viral culture for this pathogen

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Q4 MI7.3 1 pt

A 55-year-old patient with COPD develops fever and purulent sputum 10 days after ventilation for an exacerbation in the MICU. His tracheal aspirate Gram stain shows Gram-negative rods. Which empirical antibiotic regimen is most appropriate for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in this setting?

A Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate + clarithromycin for 5 days
B IV piperacillin-tazobactam + IV vancomycin (dual coverage including MRSA)
C IV cefazolin alone for 7 days
D Oral doxycycline monotherapy targeting atypical organisms

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Q5 MI7.1 1 pt

A 7-year-old unvaccinated child presents with a paroxysmal cough that ends in an inspiratory whoop followed by post-tussive vomiting. Blood count shows lymphocyte count of 18,000/µL. Culture on Bordet-Gengou agar grows small, smooth, glistening colonies with a surrounding zone of haemolysis. Which virulence mechanism of this pathogen directly inhibits phagocyte function?

A Pertussis toxin ADP-ribosylates Gi-protein, blocking neutrophil chemotaxis and causing lymphocytosis
B Exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis in alveolar macrophages
C Protein A on the bacterial surface binds the Fc region of IgG, blocking opsonisation
D Capsule of sialic acid mimics host tissue, preventing complement activation

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Q6 MI7.2 1 pt

An immunocompetent 40-year-old archaeologist who recently returned from excavating a site in Maharashtra develops fever, weight loss, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with multiple pulmonary nodules on CT. Bronchoalveolar lavage cytology shows small, oval yeast cells within macrophages (2–4 µm). Which organism is most likely, and what is the definitive treatment for disseminated disease?

A Pneumocystis jirovecii — treated with co-trimoxazole (TMP-SMX)
B Histoplasma capsulatum — treated with itraconazole (mild-moderate) or amphotericin B (severe)
C Cryptococcus neoformans — treated with fluconazole monotherapy for pulmonary disease
D Aspergillus fumigatus — treated with voriconazole

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Q7 MI7.2 1 pt

A 32-year-old HIV-positive patient (CD4 count 80/µL) from Mumbai has a chest X-ray showing a thick-walled cavity in the right upper lobe. A high-resolution CT shows a round, dense opacity within the cavity with a crescent of air around it ('air crescent sign'). He is not currently on any antifungal therapy. What is the most likely diagnosis and the pathological mechanism of cavity formation?

A Pulmonary hydatid cyst — daughter cysts separate after rupture forming air crescents
B Aspergilloma — fungal ball of hyphae colonises a pre-existing cavity, forms from branching hyphae agglomerated with fibrin and cellular debris
C Primary pulmonary TB — cavity from liquefactive necrosis, no fungal component
D Klebsiella lung abscess — capsule-rich mucoid bacteria form a ball-like aggregate in cavitated tissue

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Q8 MI7.2 1 pt

A nurse in a Delhi tuberculosis ward has a BCG vaccination scar and a positive Mantoux test (18 mm induration). She has no symptoms and a normal chest X-ray. She undergoes QuantiFERON-TB Gold In-Tube (IGRA) testing, which is positive. How should this discordance be interpreted?

A False-positive IGRA due to cross-reactivity with BCG antigens (ESAT-6 and CFP-10 are present in BCG)
B The Mantoux result is likely a BCG-boosted reaction; IGRA is the more specific test for true M. tuberculosis infection as ESAT-6/CFP-10 are absent from BCG and most NTM
C Both tests are equally unreliable in BCG-vaccinated individuals and a decision must be based on CT chest alone
D The positive IGRA indicates active TB and treatment with HRZE must start immediately

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Q9 MI7.2 1 pt

A 45-year-old man with pulmonary tuberculosis on second month of HRZE therapy (Category I NTEP regimen) has a sputum smear that remains positive. A drug sensitivity test returns: resistant to Isoniazid and Rifampicin, sensitive to fluoroquinolones and injectables. What category of TB does he have, and what regimen change is appropriate?

A Pre-XDR TB — needs BPaL (bedaquiline + pretomanid + linezolid) plus delamanid
B MDR-TB — enroll in Category IV (NTEP shorter MDR-TB regimen with bedaquiline, levofloxacin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, high-dose INH, clofazimine, ethionamide)
C Mono-resistant TB — continue HRZE with a dose increase of rifampicin
D Rifampicin-resistant TB only — switch to NTEP Category II (SHRZE)

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Q10 MI7.3 1 pt

A 70-year-old man with poor dentition is found unconscious after a seizure at home and is brought to the casualty. He is intubated. A chest X-ray taken 48 hours later shows consolidation in the right lower lobe (posterior segment). Blood cultures are negative. Sputum culture grows a polymicrobial mixture including Fusobacterium nucleatum and Prevotella melaninogenica. What is the most appropriate first-line antibiotic for this condition?

A Azithromycin — targeting atypical organisms in this gravity-dependent consolidation
B Amoxicillin-clavulanate or clindamycin — covering oral anaerobes responsible for aspiration pneumonia
C Ceftriaxone monotherapy — first-line for any pneumonia in the elderly
D Rifampicin + isoniazid — anaerobic culture suggests mycobacterial coinfection

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Q11 MI7.2 1 pt

A 72-year-old male ex-miner on long-term prednisolone for COPD presents with fever, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Bronchoalveolar lavage reveals septate hyphae with 45° acute-angle dichotomous branching. What is the pathogenesis underlying the high mortality in this condition?

A Angio-invasion with thrombosis causes infarction; immunity is mediated by neutrophils — steroid-induced neutropenia removes this defence
B The hyphae produce exotoxin A that inhibits protein synthesis in alveolar macrophages, leading to cell death
C Immune complex deposition in alveolar capillaries triggers Type III hypersensitivity and haemorrhage
D The organism produces urease, raising alveolar pH and preventing complement activation

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Q12 MI7.4 1 pt

During a microbiology practical, a student processes a sputum sample from a suspected CAP patient. After Gram staining, she observes lancet-shaped Gram-positive diplococci surrounded by clear zones (capsule not staining). She inoculates the sample on Blood Agar + 5% CO2 and Optochin discs are placed. Next morning, she notices alpha-haemolysis with a zone of inhibition around the Optochin disc. Which confirmatory test is next, and what does a bile solubility test result of 'complete lysis' indicate?

A Quellung reaction — bile solubility complete lysis indicates the organism has no capsule and is avirulent
B Serotyping by Quellung reaction — bile solubility with complete lysis confirms S. pneumoniae (autolysin activated by bile salts causes cell lysis)
C CAMP test — bile solubility lysis indicates Group A Streptococcus producing streptolysin S
D Coagulase test — bile solubility lysis indicates Staphylococcus aureus capsule dissolution

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