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OG13.1-8 | Normal Labour — Graded Quiz

Graded 11 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 OG13.1 1 pt

A 23-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation undergoes clinical pelvimetry. Your examining finger does not reach the sacral promontory. Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate?

A The diagonal conjugate is less than 11.5 cm — delivery by caesarean section is indicated
B The pelvic inlet is likely adequate — the obstetric conjugate is likely more than 10 cm
C The obstetric conjugate cannot be estimated — radiological pelvimetry is mandatory
D The measurement is inconclusive — a second examiner should attempt the measurement

Correct. When the sacral promontory cannot be reached (diagonal conjugate >12.5 cm), the obstetric conjugate is estimated as >11 cm — well above the critical threshold. This is a reassuring finding, NOT an indication for caesarean or further imaging.

Clinical pelvimetry rule: if the sacral promontory cannot be reached, the inlet is probably adequate. If reached, measure the diagonal conjugate and subtract 1.5 cm to estimate the obstetric conjugate.

NOT reaching the sacral promontory is REASSURING. It means the diagonal conjugate exceeds 12.5 cm; subtracting 1.5 cm gives an obstetric conjugate of likely >11 cm. The promontory can only be reached when it projects into the birth canal — i.e., in a contracted pelvis.

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Q2 OG13.2 1 pt

A multigravida at 39 weeks in active labour has the fetal head in left occiput posterior (LOP) position at station +1. The midwife notes that labour progress has been slow. Which of the following mechanisms most commonly allows a persistent OP position to deliver vaginally?

A The head rotates 45° posteriorly to become direct OP and delivers by face-to-pubis
B The head rotates 135° anteriorly to become OA and delivers by extension in the normal mechanism
C The head descends without any rotation and delivers as a brow presentation
D The head rotates 90° to become transverse and delivers at the outlet

Correct. In persistent OP, the most common favourable mechanism is long rotation of 135° anteriorly to become OA, after which the normal mechanism of extension under the pubic arch proceeds. Short rotation (45° to direct OP) with face-to-pubis delivery also occurs but is less common.

Persistent OP can deliver: (1) long rotation 135° to OA — normal mechanism, (2) short rotation 45° to direct OP — face-to-pubis (military attitude). Long rotation is more common; OP is the most common malposition.

In OP position, two outcomes are possible: (1) long internal rotation of 135° → OA → normal delivery (most common favourable outcome), or (2) short rotation of 45° to direct OP → face-to-pubis delivery. Brow and transverse deliveries at the outlet are not physiological.

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Q3 OG13.3 1 pt

A 29-year-old primigravida in labour has the following partograph findings at 10:00 hours: cervix 6 cm, head at station 0, contractions 3 in 10 min each lasting 35 seconds. Her previous examination at 08:00 showed 6 cm dilatation. The alert line at 10:00 hours is at 8 cm. How should you interpret this finding?

A Progress is satisfactory — she is exactly on the alert line
B Progress is slow — she has crossed the alert line and urgent assessment is needed
C Progress is normal for a primigravida — reassess in 4 hours
D Labour has entered the latent phase — the partograph plot should be restarted

Correct. If no progress occurred in 2 hours (6 cm at 08:00 and still 6 cm at 10:00), and the alert line is now at 8 cm, the actual dilatation (6 cm) is 2 cm behind the alert line. This means the plot has crossed the alert line and she is at risk of crossing the action line — urgent assessment for cause and intervention is needed.

Crossing the alert line means progress is slower than 1 cm/hour. Re-evaluate the cause (inadequate contractions, malpresentation, CPD). If the action line is crossed (2 hours later), active intervention is mandatory.

The alert line at 10:00 hours represents expected progress of 1 cm/hour; if she was 6 cm at 08:00, the alert line at 10:00 should be at 8 cm. Actual dilatation at 6 cm is 2 cm behind the alert line — she has crossed it. Reassessing in 4 hours would allow the action line to be crossed without intervention.

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Q4 OG13.3 1 pt

A post-partum woman who is breastfeeding and hypertensive requires contraception. She is on labetolol. Which uterotonic used in active management of the third stage would be CONTRAINDICATED in this patient if she develops PPH requiring additional uterotonics?

A Oxytocin 10 IU intramuscular
B Misoprostol 800 mcg sublingual
C Carboprost (15-methyl PGF2α) 250 mcg intramuscular
D Ergometrine 0.5 mg intramuscular

Correct. Ergometrine causes sustained vasoconstriction and is contraindicated in hypertension (pre-eclampsia, chronic hypertension, cardiac disease) as it can precipitate severe hypertension, stroke, or MI. Oxytocin, misoprostol, and carboprost (with the caveat that carboprost is contraindicated in asthma) are safer in hypertensive patients.

Uterotonic contraindications: Ergometrine — contraindicated in hypertension/cardiac disease. Carboprost — contraindicated in asthma. Misoprostol — fever/hypersensitivity. Oxytocin — water intoxication risk with excess IV fluid, but safe in hypertension.

The contraindication to remember: ergometrine + hypertension = dangerous vasoconstriction. Carboprost is contraindicated in asthma (not hypertension per se). Oxytocin and misoprostol are safe in hypertension. The OG known-trap: PPH uterotonic contraindications — ergometrine is contraindicated in hypertension/cardiac disease.

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Q5 OG13.4 1 pt

A 34-year-old G1P0 at 41+4 weeks presents for post-dates review. Cervical examination shows Bishop score of 4 (soft, mid-position, 50% effaced, 1 cm dilated, -2 station). Non-stress test is reactive. What is the most appropriate next step?

A Emergency caesarean section given the unfavourable cervix
B Cervical ripening with prostaglandins followed by induction of labour
C Reassure and allow continuation of pregnancy up to 43 weeks
D Immediate amniotomy (ARM) to accelerate ripening

Correct. At 41+4 weeks with a Bishop score of 4 (unfavourable, <6), cervical ripening with prostaglandins (PGE2 gel or misoprostol) is indicated before oxytocin induction. Post-dates pregnancy carries increasing risks of placental insufficiency, meconium, and stillbirth beyond 42 weeks.

Bishop score <6 = unfavourable cervix → cervical ripening (PGE2 gel or misoprostol) before oxytocin induction. Post-dates = ≥42 weeks; offer induction at 41–42 weeks to prevent stillbirth.

An unfavourable cervix (Bishop <6) is not an indication for immediate caesarean. Continuing to 43 weeks is not safe — national and WHO guidelines recommend offering induction between 41 and 42 weeks. ARM on an unfavourable cervix is unsafe and may result in failed induction or cord prolapse. Cervical ripening + induction is the standard of care.

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Q6 OG13.4 1 pt

A 20-year-old G1 at 26 weeks presents with contractions every 8 minutes and 2 cm cervical dilatation. Cervicovaginal fFN is positive. Which of the following statements best explains the PATHOPHYSIOLOGY driving preterm labour in the context of intrauterine infection?

A Infection causes decidual hypoxia, reducing progesterone synthesis and activating the labour pathway
B Bacterial endotoxins activate the innate immune response → cytokines (IL-1β, IL-6, TNF-α) → prostaglandin synthesis → uterine contractions
C Infection causes direct myometrial toxicity, stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors and increasing contractility
D Bacterial metabolites increase maternal cortisol → fetal HPA activation → surfactant deficiency → preterm birth

Correct. In infection-driven preterm labour, bacterial components (LPS/endotoxins) activate macrophages and decidual cells → cytokine cascade (IL-1β, IL-6, TNF-α) → increased prostaglandin (PGE2 and PGF2α) synthesis → myometrial contractions and cervical ripening. This is the most evidence-supported mechanism.

Preterm labour pathophysiology: common final pathway = premature prostaglandin synthesis. In infection: LPS → cytokines (IL-1β, IL-6, TNF-α) → PGE2/PGF2α → myometrial activation. In other causes: abruption (thrombin), overdistension (stretch), ischaemia (CRH).

Option A conflates the progesterone withdrawal mechanism (relevant in term labour, not infection-driven). Option C is incorrect — infection does not act via beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Option D confuses neonatal surfactant deficiency (consequence) with a mechanism for triggering preterm labour. The cytokine-prostaglandin pathway is the established mechanism for infection-associated PTL.

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Q7 OG13.3 1 pt

During induction of labour with oxytocin infusion, the CTG shows a pattern of late decelerations with reduced baseline variability. Contractions are occurring 5 in 10 minutes. What is the IMMEDIATE management?

A Increase the oxytocin infusion to augment delivery speed
B Stop oxytocin, position patient left lateral, give oxygen, and call for senior review
C Perform ARM to accelerate descent and reduce contraction frequency
D Administer tocolytics and continue monitoring for 30 minutes

Correct. Late decelerations with reduced variability indicate uteroplacental insufficiency — Category III (ominous) CTG. IMMEDIATE steps: STOP oxytocin (hyperstimulation is a reversible cause), left lateral positioning (relieve aortocaval compression), supplemental oxygen, IV fluid bolus, and urgent senior review for decision on delivery.

CTG late decelerations + reduced variability = Category III = urgent action: STOP oxytocin, left lateral tilt, O2, IV fluids, call senior. Consider emergency delivery if no improvement.

Increasing oxytocin when there is fetal distress from possible hyperstimulation is dangerous. ARM would not help and may worsen the situation. Tocolytics may be used as an acute resuscitation measure (terbutaline) in hyperstimulation, but STOPPING oxytocin is the first mandatory step.

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Q8 OG13.5 1 pt

After performing amniotomy (ARM) at 6 cm dilatation in a multigravida, the midwife notes bright green meconium-stained liquor draining. The FHR immediately shows a bradycardia to 70 bpm. What is the first priority action?

A Immediate electronic FHR monitoring to document the bradycardia pattern
B Vaginal examination to exclude cord prolapse as the cause of the bradycardia
C Position the patient in Trendelenburg and administer oxygen while calling for theatre
D Start tocolysis with terbutaline to relieve possible hyperstimulation

Correct. Acute FHR bradycardia immediately after ARM is cord prolapse until proven otherwise. The first priority is immediate vaginal examination to feel for the cord in the vagina or cervix. If cord is felt, manage cord prolapse immediately (elevate presenting part, call for emergency caesarean).

Acute bradycardia after ARM = rule out cord prolapse FIRST by vaginal examination. Cord prolapse management: manual elevation of presenting part, knee-chest or Trendelenburg position, fill bladder with 400–500 mL saline if time permits, emergency LSCS.

While monitoring and oxygen are important, the FIRST action after acute bradycardia following ARM is to exclude cord prolapse by vaginal examination. Documentation and tocolysis are secondary. Trendelenburg positioning is part of cord prolapse management but only after confirming the diagnosis.

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Q9 OG13.6 1 pt

During a OSCE station on a mannequin demonstrating normal delivery, a student places their hand firmly on the fetal head and attempts to push it back ('fundal pressure') to slow descent. The examiner stops the student. Why is this manoeuvre INCORRECT in normal delivery?

A It increases the risk of shoulder dystocia by impacting the anterior shoulder
B It prevents the natural mechanism of extension and risks perineal lacerations and neonatal head injury
C It is incorrect technique — fundal pressure should be applied by an assistant, not the delivering hand
D It causes uterine atony by disrupting the Ferguson reflex

Correct. During the second stage, the delivering hand should apply GENTLE counter-pressure on the fetal head to CONTROL (not prevent) delivery — the Ritgen manoeuvre. Forcefully pushing the head back prevents the natural extension mechanism, may cause excessive perineal trauma, and risks hyperflexion injury to the neonatal neck.

Ritgen manoeuvre: right hand controls the head (finger tips on occiput), left hand presses through the perineum on the fetal chin to assist extension. Goal: controlled delivery to prevent rapid decompression and perineal tears.

Fundal pressure (Kristeller manoeuvre) is controversial and not recommended for routine delivery. The delivering hand should control (slow) the head's emergence with gentle counter-pressure, not push it back. The correct technique: thumb and fingers of right hand on occiput to control speed; left hand at perineum to support and flex the head for Ritgen manoeuvre.

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Q10 OG13.8 1 pt

A 17-year-old primigravida in active labour starts crying and asks the midwife to explain what is happening. The midwife responds: 'Don't cry, it will be over soon. Just push when I tell you.' Applying Bohren's 2015 typology of disrespect and abuse during childbirth, which category does the midwife's response BEST exemplify?

A Physical abuse — non-consensual care
B Non-dignified care — failure to maintain dignity and dismissive communication
C Abandonment of care — leaving a woman alone during labour
D Non-confidential care — sharing private information

Correct. Bohren's category 3 (non-dignified care) includes: shouting, scolding, dismissing concerns, using degrading language. Telling a frightened teenager 'don't cry' and issuing commands without explanation is dismissive and disrespectful — it fails to address her emotional needs and denies her information about her own care.

Bohren 2015 typology — 7 categories: (1) physical abuse, (2) sexual abuse, (3) verbal abuse, (4) stigma/discrimination, (5) failure to meet professional standards, (6) poor rapport/communication, (7) health system conditions. Non-dignified/dismissive communication = category 3/6.

Physical abuse (category 1) involves hitting, slapping, or non-consensual physical acts. Abandonment (category 5) means leaving women unattended at critical moments. Non-confidential care (category 6) involves sharing private information. The dismissive verbal response ('don't cry, just push') falls under non-dignified care.

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Q11 OG13.4 1 pt

A 28-year-old G3P2 at 34+2 weeks is diagnosed with PROM (rupture of membranes without labour for 18 hours). She is afebrile, CTG is reactive, and there is no evidence of chorioamnionitis. Her group B Streptococcus status is unknown. What is the most appropriate management?

A Immediate caesarean section to prevent neonatal infection
B Expectant management with antenatal steroids, antibiotics, and GBS prophylaxis with close monitoring
C Induction of labour with prostaglandins to prevent ascending infection
D Expectant management without antibiotics since there is no evidence of infection

Correct. PPROM at 34+2 weeks without signs of chorioamnionitis: expectant management is standard — give corticosteroids (betamethasone — she is <34+6), administer antibiotics to prolong the latency period (erythromycin/co-amoxiclav per ORACLE trial), and give GBS prophylaxis (penicillin or ampicillin, since GBS status unknown). Monitor for infection. Deliver at 34–37 weeks based on clinical course.

PPROM <34 weeks: corticosteroids + antibiotics (latency) + GBS prophylaxis. Monitor for chorioamnionitis signs: maternal fever >38°C, tachycardia, uterine tenderness, offensive liquor, raised CRP/WBC. Delivery if chorioamnionitis suspected regardless of gestational age.

Immediate caesarean is not indicated without fetal compromise or chorioamnionitis. Prostaglandins for induction are not first-line in PPROM (ARM has already occurred). Antibiotics ARE indicated in PPROM — they demonstrably prolong latency and reduce maternal and neonatal infection rates (ORACLE I trial evidence).

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