Page 8 of 11

OR12.1 | Congenital Lesions — Practice Quiz

Practice 8 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.

Q1 OR12.1 1 pt

A neonate is examined at birth. The examiner abducts the hip and feels a palpable clunk as the dislocated femoral head reduces into the acetabulum. Which test is being performed and what does this finding signify?

A Barlow's test — this demonstrates a hip that can be subluxated posteriorly
B Ortolani's test — the clunk indicates a posteriorly dislocated hip being reduced
C Galeazzi's test — asymmetric knee height indicating femoral length discrepancy
D Trendelenburg's test — indicating gluteus medius weakness on the affected side

Correct. Ortolani's test: the examiner abducts the flexed hip and the dislocated head reduces with a palpable clunk. The key discriminator is CLUNK (reduction), not a click. Barlow provokes subluxation on adduction.

Ortolani's test detects a palpable clunk (not a click) as the dislocated femoral head is reduced back into the acetabulum on abduction. A 'click' is non-specific; the Ortolani sign is a true clunk indicating reducible DDH.

Recall: Ortolani = 'Out → In' (reducing a dislocated hip). The finding is a CLUNK (palpable reduction), not a non-specific click. Barlow = 'In → Out' (subluxating an unstable but located hip).

Click to reveal answer

Q2 OR12.1 1 pt

A 3-week-old infant is brought to a paediatric orthopaedic clinic with suspected developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). What is the investigation of choice at this age?

A Plain X-ray of the pelvis (AP view)
B MRI of the hip
C Ultrasound of the hip (Graf's method)
D CT arthrogram

Correct. Ultrasound (Graf classification) is the gold standard for DDH < 6 months. The femoral head is cartilaginous and invisible on plain X-ray at this age. USG assesses alpha angle (bony acetabular roof) and beta angle (cartilaginous labrum).

Ultrasound (Graf's method) is the investigation of choice for DDH in infants under 6 months because the femoral head is cartilaginous and not visible on plain X-ray. X-rays become reliable only after ossification of the femoral head capital epiphysis (typically after 4–6 months).

Plain X-ray is unreliable before 4–6 months because the femoral capital epiphysis is not yet ossified. USG is the imaging of choice for infants < 6 months.

Click to reveal answer

Q3 OR12.1 1 pt

A 6-month-old girl is diagnosed with DDH and started on a Pavlik harness. Which position does the harness maintain, and what is the mechanism of treatment?

A Extension and adduction to stabilise the hip capsule
B Flexion and abduction to hold the femoral head in the acetabulum
C Neutral rotation with a spica cast to prevent redislocation
D Adduction and internal rotation to tighten the posterior capsule

Correct. The Pavlik harness maintains hip flexion (~100°) and abduction, which centres the femoral head in the acetabulum and allows dynamic reduction. This stimulates acetabular and femoral head remodelling.

The Pavlik harness maintains the hip in flexion (~100°) and abduction, placing the femoral head against the posterior acetabular wall and stimulating acetabular development. It is the first-line treatment for DDH up to 6 months of age.

The Pavlik harness uses flexion + abduction. Extension or adduction would dislocate the hip or compromise blood supply. Extension risks avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Click to reveal answer

Q4 OR12.1 1 pt

A 2-day-old boy is noted to hold his neck tilted to the right with the chin rotated towards the left. A hard, non-tender, fusiform swelling is palpable in the right sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the most likely diagnosis and the recommended initial management?

A Atlanto-axial rotatory subluxation — cervical collar immobilisation
B Congenital muscular torticollis — stretching physiotherapy
C Cervical hemivertebra — observation only, no early intervention
D Klippel-Feil syndrome — MRI cervical spine and neurosurgical referral

Correct. Congenital muscular torticollis: SCM fibrosis ('sternomastoid tumour') with ipsilateral tilt and contralateral chin rotation. Stretching physiotherapy is the mainstay. Surgery (bipolar SCM release) if no resolution by 12–18 months.

Congenital muscular torticollis (CMT) presents with SCM fibrosis producing a sternomastoid tumour. The head tilts to the affected side and the chin rotates away. First-line management is stretching physiotherapy; most resolve by 1 year. Surgery (SCM release) is reserved for cases persisting beyond 12–18 months.

The palpable SCM swelling in a neonate is the 'sternomastoid tumour' of congenital muscular torticollis. Stretching physiotherapy resolves >90% by 12 months.

Click to reveal answer

Q5 OR12.1 1 pt

A newborn is noted to have a right foot that is inverted, plantarflexed, adducted and supinated. The deformity is rigid and cannot be passively corrected to neutral. Which component of the deformity is remembered by the mnemonic CAVE and what is the first-line treatment?

A CAVE = Cavus, Adduction, Valgus, Equinus — surgery within first month
B CAVE = Cavus, Adduction, Varus, Equinus — Ponseti serial casting
C CAVE = Calcaneus, Adduction, Varus, Equinus — French physiotherapy method
D CAVE = Cavus, Abduction, Varus, Equinus — Denis Browne splint alone

Correct. CTEV deformity: CAVE = Cavus, Adduction (forefoot), Varus (hindfoot), Equinus (plantarflexion). Ponseti method (serial weekly casts → percutaneous Achilles tenotomy → abduction brace FAB) is the gold standard with >95% success.

Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV/clubfoot) deformity is described by CAVE: Cavus (high arch), forefoot Adduction, hindfoot Varus, hindfoot Equinus. Ponseti method (serial casting starting within days of birth, then percutaneous Achilles tenotomy in ~80%, followed by foot abduction brace) achieves correction in >95% of cases.

Remember CAVE: Cavus, Adduction, Varus, Equinus. The Ponseti method corrects components sequentially (C→A→V then tenotomy for E) and is far superior to extensive surgery.

Click to reveal answer

Q6 OR12.1 1 pt

A 14-year-old girl presents with progressive cosmetic deformity of the back. On Adam's forward bend test, a right thoracic rib hump is visible. X-ray shows a Cobb angle of 32° with the thoracic curve convex to the right. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A Observation with follow-up X-ray in 6 months
B Spinal brace (Milwaukee/Boston) worn 18–23 hours per day
C Posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation
D Physiotherapy and core strengthening exercises alone

Correct. AIS with Cobb 25–45° in a skeletally immature patient is managed with bracing (Milwaukee or Boston brace, 18–23 h/day). Bracing arrests progression in ~80% of compliant patients. Surgery is indicated if the curve progresses to > 45–50°.

Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS): Cobb angle < 20° = observation; 20–45° (skeletally immature) = bracing (Milwaukee/Boston brace worn 18–23 h/day); > 45–50° = surgical correction (posterior spinal fusion). A 32° curve in a growing girl warrants bracing.

Cobb angle thresholds: < 20° = observe; 20–45° in growing adolescent = brace; > 45–50° = surgical fusion. A 32° curve in a growing girl requires bracing, not mere observation or immediate surgery.

Click to reveal answer

Q7 OR12.1 1 pt

A 2-year-old boy is brought with progressive difficulty in walking. He was born with a neural tube defect and had surgical repair at birth. Neurological examination reveals flaccid paraparesis with sensory loss below L3. X-ray of the spine shows posterior spinal arch defects at L3–S1. Which condition best explains these findings?

A Spina bifida occulta — typically asymptomatic, incidental X-ray finding
B Meningocele — meninges herniate, cord normal, rarely causes neurological deficit
C Myelomeningocele — cord and roots herniate, causing segmental neurological deficits
D Sacral agenesis — absent sacrum causing neuropathic bladder alone

Correct. Myelomeningocele: neural tissue (cord + roots) herniates through the posterior spinal defect, causing motor/sensory deficits at and below the level. Orthopaedic deformities depend on the functional level (L3 = knee extension preserved, ambulation possible with AFO).

Myelomeningocele (open spina bifida) presents with posterior spinal arch defects, neural herniation, and segmental neurological deficits (level = lowest intact root). Orthopaedic consequences include paralytic deformities (hip dislocation, equinus, valgus) and the neurological level dictates ambulatory prognosis.

Spina bifida occulta has a bony defect but intact skin and no neural herniation — neurologically normal. Meningocele herniates meninges only. Myelomeningocele herniates cord/roots and causes the deficits described.

Click to reveal answer

Q8 OR12.1 1 pt

A 6-week-old girl is brought for assessment of hip asymmetry. With the hips and knees flexed to 90°, the left knee is visibly lower than the right. The Ortolani and Barlow tests are negative. What is this sign called and what does it indicate?

A Trendelenburg's sign — indicating hip abductor weakness on the left side
B Galeazzi's sign — indicating posterior dislocation or femoral shortening of the left hip
C Thomas's test — indicating fixed flexion deformity of the left hip
D Barlow's sign — indicating the left hip can be posteriorly subluxated

Correct. Galeazzi's (Allis') sign: with hips and knees at 90°, the lower knee indicates femoral shortening on that side — in a 6-week-old, this strongly suggests posterior dislocation of the DDH. May be negative in bilateral DDH where both knees appear equal.

Galeazzi's sign (also called Allis' sign) is positive when one knee appears lower than the other with hips and knees flexed to 90°. A positive Galeazzi sign indicates femoral shortening, which in this context suggests the left hip is posteriorly dislocated. It is a static test and may be negative in bilateral DDH.

Galeazzi's sign is the asymmetric knee height test. A positive sign = the affected hip's knee is lower, indicating femoral shortening from posterior dislocation.

Click to reveal answer