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OR2.7-8 | Axial Skeleton Injuries — Practice Quiz

Practice 8 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 OR2.7 1 pt

A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the emergency department following a high-speed collision. He is hypotensive (BP 80/50 mmHg) and tachycardic. Pelvic X-ray shows an open-book pelvic fracture (AP compression type II). After two litres of IV crystalloid, his blood pressure remains 85/55 mmHg. Which immediate intervention most effectively reduces ongoing haemorrhage in this patient?

A Immediate external fixation of the pelvis in the operating theatre
B Application of a circumferential pelvic binder at the level of the greater trochanters
C Emergency laparotomy for haemostatic control
D CT angiography of the pelvis to localise bleeding vessel

Correct. A circumferential pelvic binder reduces pelvic volume, compresses bleeding venous plexuses, and is the first-line haemorrhage control measure for open-book pelvic fractures in the haemodynamically unstable patient.

An open-book pelvic fracture causes massive haemorrhage by expanding pelvic volume; emergent circumferential compression with a pelvic binder or sheet reduces this volume and tamponades venous/bony haemorrhage before definitive fixation.

A pelvic binder is the first-line life-saving measure — it reduces pelvic volume and tamponades haemorrhage immediately. Operative fixation and CT angiography are deferred until the patient is stabilised.

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Q2 OR2.7 1 pt

A 35-year-old construction worker falls from scaffolding and sustains a pelvic fracture. On examination, there is limb length discrepancy with the right lower limb shorter and internally rotated. Pelvic X-ray shows a vertical shear fracture (Tile C / Young-Burgess VS pattern) with hemipelvis displaced superiorly. Which structure is most at risk for injury in this fracture pattern?

A Femoral nerve
B Obturator nerve
C Lumbosacral plexus
D Sciatic nerve at the greater sciatic foramen

Correct. Vertical shear injuries cause superior hemipelvis displacement that directly stretches or avulses the lumbosacral plexus (L4–S1), producing lower limb neurological deficit.

Vertical shear pelvic fractures disrupt both the anterior and posterior pelvic ring, including the posterior sacroiliac complex. The lumbosacral plexus — especially L4, L5, and S1 roots — and the superior gluteal artery are most at risk due to the severe displacement.

The lumbosacral plexus is the structure most at risk in vertical shear pelvic fractures due to the dramatic posterior ring disruption and superior displacement of the hemipelvis.

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Q3 OR2.8 1 pt

A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after a motor vehicle accident. He is alert but complains of severe back pain. GCS is 15. Paramedics log-rolled him onto a spinal board and applied a cervical collar. On examination there is mid-thoracic tenderness. He reports inability to move his legs. Which is the most appropriate immediate next step after primary survey and IV access?

A Remove the cervical collar and spinal board as the patient is conscious and cooperative
B Administer high-dose methylprednisolone IV (30 mg/kg bolus) immediately
C Maintain spinal precautions and obtain urgent CT spine to delineate injury level and stability
D Perform passive lower limb movement to assess completeness of the injury

Correct. Maintaining strict spinal precautions and obtaining urgent CT (or MRI) is the priority to characterise the injury, plan decompression/stabilisation, and prevent secondary cord injury from further movement.

In a haemodynamically stable patient with a suspected unstable spine injury and neurological deficit, maintaining spinal precautions (cervical collar, log-roll, hard surface transfer) during assessment and obtaining urgent MRI/CT prevents secondary cord injury from additional displacement.

Spinal precautions must be maintained until bony instability is excluded. Imaging is needed to plan definitive management. Moving the patient without precautions risks converting an incomplete injury to a complete one.

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Q4 OR2.8 1 pt

A 45-year-old man sustains a C5–C6 burst fracture after a diving accident in shallow water. He has complete loss of motor and sensory function below C5. Which of the following best describes safe mobilisation principles for this patient in the acute phase?

A Sit the patient upright in a chair within 48 hours to prevent respiratory complications
B Allow free neck movement as complete cord injury means no additional neurological harm can occur
C Maintain flat supine position with cervical traction; log-roll with maintained cervical alignment for all positional changes
D Apply a soft cervical collar and mobilise the patient to the ward within 24 hours

Correct. Until bony stability is restored (traction, halo vest, or surgical fixation), the spine must be kept immobilised. Log-rolling in a coordinated team — maintaining cervical alignment — is the only safe positional change method.

In unstable cervical spine injuries with complete neurological deficit, mobilisation is only safe after bony stability has been restored (either by halo vest/cervical orthosis after closed reduction, or surgical fixation). Log-rolling with maintained cervical alignment is mandatory for all positional changes until stability is confirmed.

Bony instability persists even in complete cord injury; further displacement can injure surviving roots at the injury level or adjacent levels. Rigid immobilisation and coordinated log-rolling are mandatory.

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Q5 OR2.7 1 pt

A 30-year-old woman is brought in hypotensive after a high-speed road traffic accident. Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma (FAST) is negative. Plain pelvic X-ray shows a lateral compression type II fracture. Her blood pressure does not respond to 2 L IV crystalloid. Which diagnostic and therapeutic step is most appropriate next?

A Diagnostic peritoneal lavage to confirm intra-abdominal source
B Angiography with selective embolisation of pelvic arterial bleeding
C Apply pelvic binder then wait for spontaneous haemostasis
D Internal fixation of the pelvic fracture in the operating theatre as the definitive haemostatic measure

Correct. With FAST negative and persistent haemodynamic instability, pelvic arterial bleeding is the most likely source. After external stabilisation (binder), angiography with embolisation is the definitive haemostatic intervention.

In haemodynamically unstable pelvic fractures with a negative FAST (no intra-abdominal source), the haemorrhage is retroperitoneal/pelvic. Interventional radiology (angiography and embolisation) is the most effective intervention once external stabilisation has been applied and intra-abdominal injury excluded.

When FAST excludes abdominal injury and the patient remains haemodynamically unstable with a pelvic fracture, arterial pelvic bleeding is the culprit. Angioembolisation is the definitive intervention after binder application.

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Q6 OR2.8 1 pt

A 19-year-old rugby player sustains a hyperflexion-rotation injury to the thoracolumbar junction (T12–L1) during a scrum. He complains of back pain but can walk, though reports numbness in the perianal region and difficulty initiating micturition. CT shows a burst fracture with 30% canal compromise. Which neurological finding is most indicative of conus medullaris involvement at this level?

A Complete flaccid paraplegia with absent reflexes in both lower limbs
B Hyperreflexia of lower limbs with spastic paraparesis
C Saddle anaesthesia with bladder and bowel dysfunction in a patient who can still walk
D Loss of proprioception but preserved pain sensation below the injury level

Correct. Conus medullaris syndrome presents with saddle anaesthesia, early bladder and bowel dysfunction (often urinary retention with overflow), and preserved or minimally affected lower limb motor function — unlike the complete flaccid paralysis of a cauda equina injury.

The conus medullaris ends at approximately L1–L2. Injury at T12–L1 classically produces a mixed upper and lower motor neuron picture: bladder/bowel dysfunction, saddle anaesthesia, preserved but altered lower limb reflexes. Perianal numbness and bladder dysfunction (saddle anaesthesia + bladder retention) are hallmark conus signs.

Conus medullaris injury characteristically produces saddle anaesthesia and sphincter dysfunction in a patient who retains some lower limb motor function. This distinguishes it from complete cord injury and from cauda equina syndrome.

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Q7 OR2.8 1 pt

During initial resuscitation of a polytrauma patient with an unstable pelvic fracture, the trauma team is preparing to log-roll the patient for examination of the back and rectum. Which describes the correct technique?

A Roll the patient 90 degrees to the lateral position to fully inspect the spine
B Use a scoop stretcher to lift without log-rolling, preserving pelvic alignment
C Roll the patient alone using the sheet method with one assistant
D Log-roll the patient 45 degrees with three team members, the team leader controlling the legs

Correct. In patients with known unstable pelvic fractures, a scoop stretcher (or similar device) that lifts the patient without inducing a rolling motion is preferred to avoid displacing the fracture and worsening haemorrhage.

Log-rolling an unstable pelvic fracture patient risks displacing the fracture and worsening haemorrhage. The log-roll must be performed with at minimum four team members: one designated to the head/cervical spine, two controlling the trunk and pelvis, and one to examine. The pelvis must be kept in neutral rotation throughout.

Log-rolling an unstable pelvic fracture risks displacing the fracture. A scoop stretcher that lifts without rolling preserves pelvic alignment and prevents additional haemorrhage.

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Q8 OR2.8 1 pt

A 55-year-old woman with osteoporosis is brought in after a fall at home. She complains of severe low back pain and cannot stand. Lateral thoracolumbar X-ray shows a wedge compression fracture at L1 with approximately 40% loss of anterior vertebral body height and no posterior cortex disruption. She has no neurological deficit. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

A Urgent surgical decompression and posterior stabilisation
B Strict bed rest for 6 weeks followed by gradual mobilisation without a brace
C Analgesia, thoracolumbar orthosis, and early mobilisation under physiotherapy supervision
D Traction with 5 kg via pelvic girdle for 4 weeks

Correct. A stable compression fracture (anterior wedging only, no posterior cortex disruption, no neurological deficit) is managed conservatively with analgesia, a TLSO brace, and supervised early mobilisation to prevent deconditioning.

Stable osteoporotic compression fractures without neurological deficit (no posterior cortex disruption, no kyphosis >30 degrees) are initially managed conservatively: analgesia, thoracolumbar orthosis (TLSO), and early mobilisation with physiotherapy. Surgical intervention is reserved for progressive deformity or neurological compromise.

Stable compression fractures without neurological deficit and without posterior disruption are treated conservatively with analgesia, brace, and early mobilisation; surgery is not indicated initially.

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