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OR2.14-16 | Fracture Complications and Special Situations — Graded Quiz

Graded 10 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 OR2.14 1 pt

A 40-year-old man has a tibial non-union of 9 months treated previously with intramedullary nailing. X-ray shows abundant callus bridging the fracture but movement is still palpable at the site. Serology shows elevated ESR and CRP. Bone biopsy histology shows acute and chronic inflammatory cells alongside osteoblastic activity. The MOST important next step to guide definitive management is:

A Immediate exchange intramedullary nailing without further workup
B Tissue culture and antibiotic sensitivity from biopsy site
C External fixator application and no antibiotics
D Bone grafting with autologous iliac crest graft immediately

Correct. Infected non-union requires identification of the organism via culture before fixation/bone grafting; proceeding without this risks implant failure and persistent sepsis.

This presentation is infected non-union (hypertrophic pattern with systemic inflammation). Before deciding on reconstruction, tissue culture and sensitivity is essential to identify the causative organism and guide targeted antibiotic therapy, which must accompany any surgical intervention.

Tissue culture is essential before definitive surgical reconstruction in infected non-union; organism-directed antibiotics must cover the entire perioperative period.

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Q2 OR2.15 1 pt

A road traffic accident victim has a 12 cm wound on the lower leg with gross soil contamination, comminuted fibula fracture, and loss of a muscle segment. The posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are absent; Doppler confirms complete disruption of the anterior tibial artery requiring repair. What is the Gustilo-Anderson classification?

A Grade II
B Grade IIIA
C Grade IIIB
D Grade IIIC

Correct. Grade IIIC is defined by a vascular injury requiring repair. Absent pulses confirmed by Doppler makes this IIIC regardless of wound size.

Grade IIIC = ANY open fracture associated with an arterial injury that requires vascular repair, regardless of wound size or degree of soft-tissue damage. The vascular injury is the defining criterion for IIIC and is the most limb-threatening grade.

Arterial injury requiring repair = Grade IIIC. This is a critical known-trap: IIIC is defined by vascular injury, not by wound size alone.

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Q3 OR2.16 1 pt

An 8-year-old boy presents with a swollen, painful elbow after a fall. X-ray shows a Type III supracondylar fracture with significant displacement. On examination, the radial pulse is absent, the hand is pale, and capillary refill is 4 seconds, but there is no neurological deficit. The correct immediate management sequence is:

A Above-elbow cast application and observation in ward for 24 hours
B Urgent closed reduction and percutaneous K-wire fixation; if pulse absent post-reduction then explore brachial artery
C MRI of the elbow before any intervention
D IV heparin and vascular surgery referral without fracture reduction

Correct. Absent pulse + pale hand = vascular emergency. Reduce and fix first; explore brachial artery if pulse does not return post-fixation.

Vascular compromise (absent pulse + pale hand) in a supracondylar fracture is an emergency. The immediate priority is urgent surgical reduction and fixation. If the pulse does not return after reduction and K-wire fixation, vascular exploration for brachial artery injury is mandatory. The brachial artery is the vessel most commonly injured.

Absent pulse with pallor demands urgent reduction and K-wire fixation. The brachial artery is the vessel at risk, and exploration follows if the pulse does not return.

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Q4 OR2.16 1 pt

A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with a Salter-Harris Type IV fracture of the distal femur. Her parents ask about long-term risks. Which complication is most specifically associated with this type?

A Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
B Premature physeal closure and growth arrest with angular deformity
C Compartment syndrome within 24 hours
D Chondrolysis of the knee joint

Correct. Type IV fractures that are not anatomically reduced form physeal bars (bony bridges) across the growth plate, causing premature closure and leg length discrepancy or angular deformity.

Salter-Harris Type IV fractures cross the metaphysis, physis (growth plate), and epiphysis. If not anatomically reduced, premature physeal closure (growth arrest) and angular deformity are the major long-term risks because bone bridges form across the physis, tethering growth.

Salter-Harris Type IV's defining long-term risk is growth arrest and angular deformity due to physeal bar formation — hence the need for anatomic reduction.

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Q5 OR2.14 1 pt

A 30-year-old woman was treated with open reduction and internal fixation for a midshaft femoral fracture 10 months ago. She now has persistent thigh pain. X-ray shows no callus formation, sclerotic bone ends, and a wide gap. Blood culture is negative; ESR is normal. What type of non-union does she have and what is the mainstay of surgical treatment?

A Hypertrophic non-union; treatment is bone grafting only
B Atrophic non-union; treatment is stable fixation plus autologous bone grafting
C Infected non-union; treatment is antibiotics and amputation
D Delayed union; treatment is continued conservative management

Correct. Atrophic non-union = absent callus, sclerotic ends, avascular. Treatment = stable fixation (exchange nail or plate) + autologous bone graft to provide osteogenic/osteoconductive stimulus.

Atrophic non-union with no infection (normal ESR, negative cultures) requires biological stimulation: bone grafting (autologous iliac crest) combined with stable internal fixation (exchange nailing or plating). The atrophic end must be freshened, medullary canal reopened, and bone graft applied.

Absent callus + sclerotic ends + normal inflammatory markers = atrophic non-union. It requires both mechanical stability AND biological stimulus (bone graft).

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Q6 OR2.15 1 pt

During management of an open tibial fracture (Grade IIIB), the wound is debrided at 4 hours post-injury. The surgeon plans definitive wound closure. According to current guidelines, what is the recommended timing for soft-tissue coverage in Grade IIIB open fractures?

A Primary closure at the time of initial debridement
B Definitive soft-tissue coverage within 72 hours of injury
C Delayed coverage at 2 weeks after infection clears
D Coverage only after fracture union is confirmed

Correct. Definitive soft-tissue coverage within 72 hours is the current standard for Grade IIIB open fractures to minimise infection and facilitate healing.

BOAST/NICE guidelines recommend definitive soft-tissue coverage for Grade IIIB open fractures within 72 hours (ideally in a combined ortho-plastic operating list). Early coverage reduces infection risk and promotes fracture healing; primary closure under tension should be avoided.

Grade IIIB requires definitive soft-tissue coverage within 72 hours. Primary closure under tension at the time of debridement is incorrect.

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Q7 OR2.16 1 pt

A 9-year-old child presents with a history of a sudden pull on the arm followed by immediate pain and refusal to use the limb. Examination shows the arm held in slight flexion, adduction, and pronation with tenderness over the radial head. X-rays are normal. After successful reduction, parents ask how to prevent recurrence. The best advice is:

A Apply a long-arm cast for 4 weeks to prevent recurrence
B Advise caregivers to avoid pulling the child by the hand/wrist and avoid swinging by the arms
C Surgical ligament repair of the annular ligament
D Refer for occupational therapy and splinting

Correct. Recurrence prevention = caregiver education to avoid traction on the forearm. No surgical or prolonged immobilisation is needed.

Pulled elbow (nursemaid's elbow) is caused by sudden axial traction on the extended, pronated forearm. Recurrence is prevented by advising caregivers never to pull a child by the hand/wrist and never to swing the child by the arms. The annular ligament matures by age 5–6, making recurrence uncommon after this age.

Pulled elbow recurs due to repeated traction. Caregiver education — specifically to avoid pulling the hand or swinging the child by the arms — is the correct prevention strategy.

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Q8 OR2.16 1 pt

A radiograph of a 6-year-old child's forearm shows a greenstick fracture of the radius with significant angulation. The contralateral cortex is intact. What is the correct treatment approach?

A Above-elbow cast without any manipulation
B Complete the fracture under anaesthesia then apply above-elbow cast
C Open reduction and internal fixation
D Observation only as the fracture will remodel

Correct. Significant angulation in a greenstick fracture requires completion of the fracture to release the intact periosteum and allow proper reduction, then cast immobilisation.

Greenstick fractures in children with significant angulation require completion of the fracture (to allow proper reduction) followed by above-elbow cast immobilisation. Simply casting without completing the fracture leaves a spring-loaded periosteum that re-angulates. Completion converts it to a stable, reducible fracture.

Significant angulation in a greenstick fracture needs completion of the fracture under anaesthesia before casting — uncompleted fractures re-angulate due to intact periosteal spring.

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Q9 OR2.14 1 pt

A 45-year-old man sustained a femoral shaft fracture 8 months ago treated with plating. Follow-up X-ray at this time shows no callus, tapered sclerotic bone ends, and the medullary canal is sealed off. He has no systemic signs of infection. Which diagnostic investigation most accurately quantifies bone vascularity at the non-union site to guide surgical planning?

A Plain radiograph
B Serum alkaline phosphatase
C Tc-99m three-phase bone scan
D Serum calcium and phosphate

Correct. Three-phase Tc-99m bone scan quantifies vascularity and bone turnover at the non-union site — low uptake confirms avascular atrophic non-union.

Tc-99m three-phase bone scan (or SPECT-CT) assesses local blood flow and bone turnover at the non-union site. Atrophic non-unions show decreased uptake reflecting poor vascularity, helping surgeons distinguish atrophic from hypertrophic subtypes and plan the extent of débridement and bone grafting needed.

Tc-99m three-phase bone scan is the investigation that directly quantifies bone blood flow and turnover, distinguishing avascular atrophic from vascular hypertrophic non-union.

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Q10 OR2.16 1 pt

A 7-year-old child with a supracondylar humerus fracture (Gartland Type III) undergoes successful closed reduction and K-wire fixation. Postoperatively the child complains of worsening pain in the forearm, the compartment feels tense, and pain is exacerbated by passive finger extension. The radial pulse is 2+ and capillary refill is 2 seconds. What is the correct interpretation and action?

A Reassure and observe; pulse is present so no compartment syndrome
B Urgent intracompartmental pressure measurement; if delta pressure <30 mmHg proceed to fasciotomy
C Elevate the limb above the heart and observe for 6 hours
D Remove K-wires and apply a backslab

Correct. Present pulse does NOT exclude compartment syndrome (a critical known-trap). Pain on passive stretch + tense compartment mandates urgent pressure measurement and fasciotomy if delta P <30 mmHg.

Compartment syndrome is a clinical diagnosis based on the 5 Ps; CRITICALLY, a present pulse does NOT exclude compartment syndrome — pulses are preserved until very late stages. The 'pain on passive stretch' is the earliest and most reliable sign. If intracompartmental pressure delta (diastolic BP − compartment pressure) is <30 mmHg, emergency fasciotomy is indicated. Do NOT be falsely reassured by a present pulse.

Critical known-trap: a present radial pulse does NOT exclude compartment syndrome. Pain on passive stretch + tense compartment requires urgent pressure measurement, and fasciotomy if delta P <30 mmHg.

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