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PE24.1-23 | Pediatric Emergencies — Graded Quiz

Graded 10 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 PE24.1 1 pt

A 2-year-old child develops witnessed out-of-hospital cardiac arrest due to a drowning incident. Bystanders are performing single-rescuer CPR. Which of the following is the CORRECT technique for this scenario?

A 30:2 ratio with two-finger technique at 100–120/min, depth 5 cm
B 30:2 ratio with two-finger or two-thumb technique at 100–120/min, depth ≥1/3 AP diameter
C 15:2 ratio with heel-of-one-hand at 80–100/min, depth 5 cm
D 15:2 ratio with two-thumb encircling at 100–120/min, depth 4 cm

For SINGLE-rescuer paediatric CPR (child or infant), the ratio is 30:2 at 100–120/min. The 15:2 ratio is for two-rescuer paediatric CPR only. A 2-year-old is a child, so depth is ≥1/3 AP diameter (~5 cm) not infant depth (4 cm). Two-thumb encircling is preferred for two-rescuer infant CPR.

Rescue ratios: single-rescuer (any age) = 30:2; two-rescuer paeds = 15:2. Rate 100–120/min for all. Depth: adult 5–6 cm; child ≥1/3 AP (~5 cm); infant ≥1/3 AP (~4 cm).

Key distinction: single-rescuer paeds CPR = 30:2 (same as adult); two-rescuer paeds = 15:2. Rate 100–120/min applies to both. Depth ≥1/3 AP diameter for both infant and child; in children ~5 cm.

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Q2 PE24.2 1 pt

A 5-year-old presents with acute severe respiratory distress: SpO₂ 80% on room air, severe subcostal retractions, central cyanosis, expiratory grunting, and absent air entry on the right with tracheal deviation to the left. After applying high-flow oxygen, the child deteriorates. Which intervention is MOST immediately indicated?

A Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and continue oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B Needle thoracocentesis in the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line on the right
C Immediate endotracheal intubation with rapid sequence induction
D Chest physiotherapy and nebulised salbutamol

Absent air entry + tracheal deviation away from the affected side = tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis and a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate needle decompression at the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line on the affected side (right), without waiting for a chest X-ray.

Tension pneumothorax: absent breath sounds + tracheal deviation away = clinical emergency. Needle decompression FIRST (2nd ICS MCL), then formal chest drain. Do not delay for imaging if clinical diagnosis is clear.

A nasopharyngeal airway addresses upper airway obstruction, not tension pneumothorax. Intubation in tension pneumothorax without decompression worsens the condition by raising airway pressure. Nebulised bronchodilators are for wheeze/bronchospasm.

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Q3 PE24.3 1 pt

A 7-year-old with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents in shock. You decide to give IV fluids. Which modification to the standard 20 mL/kg bolus protocol is MOST appropriate for DKA?

A Give 20 mL/kg bolus as in all shock, then re-evaluate
B Give 10 mL/kg bolus and reassess; restrict to minimise risk of cerebral oedema
C Give 40 mL/kg bolus to correct the large fluid deficit in DKA
D Withhold IV fluids and use oral rehydration therapy in DKA

In paediatric DKA, aggressive fluid boluses (20 mL/kg) are associated with increased risk of cerebral oedema, a major cause of DKA mortality. Guidelines recommend restricting resuscitation boluses to 10 mL/kg in DKA and reassessing, only escalating if there is haemodynamic compromise (shock with circulatory failure).

DKA fluid caution: max 10 mL/kg bolus (not 20 mL/kg); restrict fluids over 48 hours to reduce cerebral oedema risk. Monitor neurological status closely. Bolus only for haemodynamic compromise with circulatory failure, not just biochemical dehydration.

Standard 20 mL/kg is appropriate for septic/hypovolaemic shock but modified in DKA to 10 mL/kg due to cerebral oedema risk. 40 mL/kg worsens this risk. Oral rehydration is contraindicated in severe DKA.

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Q4 PE24.4 1 pt

A 3-year-old child with status epilepticus receives a benzodiazepine but continues to seize at 25 minutes. Intravenous access is now secured. Which SECOND-LINE agent is most appropriate, and what is the critical precaution for its administration?

A Phenytoin 18–20 mg/kg IV in 5% dextrose at maximum 1 mg/kg/min
B Phenytoin 18–20 mg/kg IV in normal saline at maximum 1 mg/kg/min
C Diazepam 0.5 mg/kg IV repeated twice
D Phenobarbitone 5 mg/kg IM to avoid respiratory depression

Phenytoin 18–20 mg/kg IV is the preferred second-line drug for status epilepticus. CRITICAL precaution: must be diluted in 0.9% normal saline — NEVER in dextrose-containing solutions (causes crystalline precipitation). Infuse at no more than 1 mg/kg/min with cardiac monitoring for bradycardia/hypotension.

Status epilepticus ladder: 1st line — lorazepam IV or rectal diazepam; 2nd line — phenytoin 18–20 mg/kg IV in NORMAL SALINE (NEVER dextrose); 3rd line — phenobarbitone or sodium valproate IV. ALERT: phenytoin + dextrose = crystalline precipitation = blocked line + no drug delivery.

Phenytoin in dextrose precipitates in the infusion line — a potentially fatal error. Additional benzodiazepines after two doses increase respiratory depression risk without better seizure control. Phenobarbitone IV (not IM) is an alternative second-line agent.

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Q5 PE24.5 1 pt

A 4-year-old unconscious child is brought to the emergency department. Using the AVPU scale, the child responds only to painful stimuli. Which is the most appropriate immediate step for airway management?

A Perform jaw thrust and head-tilt chin-lift to open the airway; assess breathing
B Oral suctioning immediately without airway positioning
C Apply nasopharyngeal airway without positioning
D Administer bag-mask ventilation at 20 breaths/min without airway opening

AVPU score 'P' (responds to Pain) = severely depressed consciousness (equivalent to GCS ~8). The first airway step for any unconscious child is manual airway opening — head-tilt chin-lift (no trauma) or jaw thrust (trauma). Assess breathing AFTER opening the airway. Positioning precedes all other interventions.

AVPU: A=Alert, V=Voice, P=Pain (severe impairment), U=Unresponsive (critical). Unconscious child airway: (1) position — head-tilt chin-lift or jaw thrust; (2) assess breathing; (3) suction if secretions; (4) bag-mask ventilation if apnoeic or ineffective breathing. Recovery position for breathing unconscious child without suspected trauma.

Suctioning is a secondary step once airway is opened. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion without prior positioning does not guarantee airway patency. Bag-mask ventilation without a patent airway is ineffective.

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Q6 PE24.6 1 pt

A nurse is setting up oxygen therapy for a 6-year-old with pneumonia and SpO₂ of 88% on room air. The treating doctor asks for a device that delivers a FIXED, PRECISE FiO₂ of 28%. Which device should be selected?

A Nasal cannula at 3 L/min
B Venturi mask set at 28% aperture
C Simple face mask at 4 L/min
D Non-rebreather mask at 6 L/min

Venturi masks are fixed-performance devices — they entrain a precise amount of air based on the Venturi aperture size, delivering a defined FiO₂ regardless of flow variations. Available settings: 24%, 28%, 31%, 35%, 40%, 60%. This is the only device guaranteeing a specified precise FiO₂.

Venturi mask = only FIXED-PERFORMANCE oxygen delivery device. Apertures: 24, 28, 31, 35, 40, 60% FiO₂. Use when precise FiO₂ is clinically required (COPD with hypercapnia, monitoring PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio). All other masks are variable-performance.

Nasal cannulas and simple masks are variable-performance — the actual FiO₂ depends on the patient's inspiratory flow and breathing pattern. Non-rebreather masks deliver high but imprecise FiO₂ (60–90%).

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Q7 PE24.3 1 pt

A 4-year-old child presents with signs of shock: heart rate 160/min, capillary refill time 4 seconds, cold extremities, weak peripheral pulses, blood pressure 70/40 mmHg, and altered consciousness. Which feature distinguishes cardiogenic shock from septic shock and requires a DIFFERENT initial fluid approach?

A Capillary refill time >3 seconds
B Hepatomegaly and gallop rhythm on auscultation
C Heart rate >150/min
D Altered consciousness with low blood pressure

Hepatomegaly and a gallop rhythm (S3 or summation gallop) are clinical signs of cardiogenic shock with cardiac failure. Aggressive fluid resuscitation (20 mL/kg) in cardiogenic shock worsens pulmonary oedema — the initial bolus should be 5–10 mL/kg with careful reassessment. All other options listed are common to all shock types.

Shock fluid bolus modifications: standard 20 mL/kg for septic/hypovolaemic; 10 mL/kg for DKA; 5–10 mL/kg with caution for cardiogenic (watch for worsening signs of cardiac failure — hepatomegaly, pulmonary oedema, gallop). Always reassess after each bolus.

CRT >3s, tachycardia, and altered consciousness occur in all shock types. Only signs of cardiac dysfunction (gallop, hepatomegaly, pulmonary oedema) distinguish cardiogenic from septic/hypovolaemic shock and mandate fluid restriction.

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Q8 PE24.16 1 pt

A 3-year-old child is brought in with severe dehydration from acute watery diarrhoea. The child is lethargic, unable to drink, with skin pinch returning very slowly (>3 seconds). The weight is 15 kg. Per WHO Plan C for children >12 months, what is the correct fluid regimen?

A Ringer's lactate 100 mL/kg: 30 mL/kg over 30 min, then 70 mL/kg over 2.5 hours
B Ringer's lactate 100 mL/kg: 30 mL/kg over 1 hour, then 70 mL/kg over 5 hours
C Normal saline 75 mL/kg over 4 hours
D Oral rehydration salts 75 mL/kg over 4 hours followed by IV maintenance

WHO Plan C severe dehydration for CHILDREN (>12 months): Ringer's lactate 100 mL/kg total — give 30 mL/kg FAST over 30 minutes, then 70 mL/kg over 2.5 hours. The slower schedule (1h + 5h) applies to INFANTS <12 months.

WHO Plan C severe dehydration: Ringer's lactate 100 mL/kg. Children >12 months: 30 mL/kg in 30 min, then 70 mL/kg in 2.5 h. Infants <12 months: 30 mL/kg in 1 h, then 70 mL/kg in 5 h. Reassess after initial bolus — if improved, continue; if worsening, repeat.

The 1h + 5h schedule is for infants <12 months. Children >12 months receive faster rehydration: 30 min + 2.5 hours. ORS is contraindicated in a lethargic child unable to drink.

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Q9 PE24.17 1 pt

A 6-month-old infant born to an HBsAg-positive mother is admitted for a febrile illness. During assessment you note the baby's temperature is 35.0°C (rectal). Which of the following BEST describes the correct classification and immediate management of this finding?

A Normal temperature; no intervention for temperature management needed
B Hypothermia (<36.5°C): skin-to-skin contact, warm room, feed early, monitor glucose
C Low-grade fever (pyrexia): antipyretics and cold sponging
D Hypothermia: active external rewarming with ice-cold intravenous fluids

Normal core temperature in infants is 36.5–37.5°C; below 36.5°C is hypothermia. At 35°C this infant is hypothermic. Immediate management: skin-to-skin with caregiver, warm environment (≥25°C), feed immediately (breastmilk prevents hypoglycaemia), monitor blood glucose. Ice-cold IV fluids are contraindicated and worsen hypothermia.

Neonatal/infant thermal regulation: normal 36.5–37.5°C. Hypothermia <36.5°C → warm skin-to-skin, hat, warm room, early feed, blood glucose check. Hypothermia increases risk of hypoglycaemia, sepsis, respiratory distress, and coagulopathy. NEVER cold sponge a hypothermic baby.

35°C is below the normal lower limit of 36.5°C — this is hypothermia, not fever. Cold sponging worsens hypothermia. IV ice-cold fluids are harmful. The primary interventions are warmth and feeding.

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Q10 PE24.23 1 pt

A paediatric resident needs to obtain informed consent before performing a lumbar puncture on a 10-year-old child with suspected meningitis. The child's parents are unavailable and the child is conscious and able to communicate. Which statement BEST describes the ethical and legal approach?

A Proceed without consent since it is an emergency and parents are unavailable
B Attempt to contact parents/guardians urgently; if life-threatening and unavailable, proceed under the emergency exception with documentation, also seek assent from the child
C The child's assent alone is sufficient to proceed with any procedure
D Defer the lumbar puncture indefinitely until parents provide written consent

Informed consent for minors requires parental/guardian consent. In a life-threatening emergency where parents cannot be reached, the emergency exception (best interests standard) allows the procedure with full documentation. The child's assent should still be sought as part of best practice, even if not legally sufficient. Deferring a life-threatening procedure is inappropriate.

Informed consent for paediatric procedures: require parental/guardian written consent. Emergency exception: when parents unavailable and life threatened, proceed with best interests documentation + full explanation to parents as soon as available. Child assent is ethically important (recognises autonomy) but legally insufficient in India for minors.

Proceeding without documentation is ethically wrong. A 10-year-old's assent, while important, is not legally sufficient for parental consent. Deferring a life-threatening procedure is dangerous.

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