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PE2.1-3 | Growth Problems — Graded Quiz
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A 10-month-old boy weighs 6.2 kg (birth weight 3.0 kg). His weight-for-height Z-score is −3.5, MUAC is 10.8 cm, and he has bilateral pitting pedal oedema. He is irritable but feeding. Blood glucose is 2.0 mmol/L. Which of the following is the HIGHEST immediate management priority?
In SAM, Step 1 of the WHO 10-step protocol is treatment of hypoglycaemia (blood glucose <3 mmol/L or <54 mg/dL). This must precede nutritional rehabilitation. Give 10% dextrose 5 mL/kg or 50 mL of 10% dextrose orally if conscious, then start F-75 (low-protein, low-sodium starter formula — NOT F-100).
In SAM management, always follow WHO 10-step order: Step 1 = hypoglycaemia, Step 2 = hypothermia, Step 3 = dehydration/electrolytes, Step 4 = infection — hypoglycaemia treatment precedes nutritional rehabilitation.
F-100 is a catch-up formula used only after the child is stabilised (Step 7 onward) — using it early causes dangerous fluid shifts, refeeding syndrome, and cardiac failure. Hypoglycaemia is an immediate life threat that supersedes all other management steps.
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A 2-year-old child with non-organic failure to thrive shows catch-up growth after nutritional rehabilitation but the parents report continued feeding difficulties and tantrums at mealtimes. The paediatrician plans a counselling session. Which is the MOST evidence-based approach to address the feeding difficulty?
Responsive feeding (Satter's Division of Responsibility: parents decide what, when, and where; child decides whether and how much) combined with structured mealtimes, a positive mealtime environment, and elimination of force-feeding is the evidence-based intervention for behavioural feeding difficulties in toddlers with FTT.
Responsive feeding (Satter's model) is the cornerstone of managing behavioural feeding difficulties: parents control the feeding environment; children control their intake — eliminate force-feeding and distraction feeding.
Appetite stimulants do not address the relational root cause. Withholding meals risks hypoglycaemia and worsens anxiety around food. Psychiatric referral without first delivering evidence-based feeding counselling is premature.
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An 8-year-old boy has height −2.5 SD, bone age of 6 years, normal height velocity for bone age, mid-parental height of 180 cm, and a paternal history of delayed puberty. Which investigation MOST helps differentiate constitutional delay of growth from growth hormone deficiency?
IGF-1 is the best initial biochemical screening test to differentiate CDGP from GH deficiency. In CDGP, IGF-1 is normal for bone age. In GH deficiency, IGF-1 is low. A normal IGF-1 makes GH deficiency very unlikely and avoids the need for GH stimulation testing.
IGF-1 is the best first biochemical screen for GH deficiency — normal IGF-1 (for bone age) virtually excludes GH deficiency; if low, proceed to GH stimulation testing on two separate occasions.
Serial bone age X-rays confirm delay but do not distinguish CDGP from GH deficiency. Random GH is unreliable (pulsatile secretion). MRI pituitary is a tertiary investigation after biochemical confirmation, not a first step.
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A 4-year-old girl has disproportionate short stature with a normal-sized trunk and short limbs. She has a trident hand and frontal bossing. Her parents are of normal height. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Achondroplasia is the most common cause of disproportionate short stature (rhizomelic — proximal limb shortening). Features include frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia, trident hand, lumbar lordosis, and normal intelligence. Caused by FGFR3 gain-of-function mutation (autosomal dominant; ~80% are new mutations from normal-height parents).
Always classify short stature as proportionate vs disproportionate first: proportionate → endocrine/nutritional/systemic/chromosomal; disproportionate (short limbs, normal trunk) → skeletal dysplasia (commonest = achondroplasia).
GH deficiency, hypothyroidism, and CDGP all cause proportionate short stature (trunk and limbs reduced equally), not the disproportionate pattern with limb shortening seen here.
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A community health worker screens children aged 6–59 months using MUAC tape in a rural camp. Which cut-off correctly identifies a child as having severe acute malnutrition?
The WHO/IAP/NHM threshold for SAM using MUAC in children aged 6–59 months is MUAC <11.5 cm. MUAC 11.5–12.5 cm = moderate acute malnutrition (MAM); MUAC ≥12.5 cm = no acute malnutrition.
SAM MUAC cut-off = <11.5 cm (6–59 months); MAM = 11.5–12.5 cm; normal ≥12.5 cm. This single measurement enables community-level SAM screening without equipment.
MUAC <12.5 cm is the cut-off for MAM (moderate), not SAM. The SAM threshold is <11.5 cm. MUAC <10.0 cm is below the SAM threshold but is not the defining cut-off.
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A 12-year-old girl has short stature (−2.8 SD), no breast development, no pubic hair, and elevated FSH and LH levels. Karyotype reveals 45,XO. Bone age is 10 years. What is the MOST appropriate management plan?
Turner syndrome management combines rhGH (to improve final height) and oestrogen replacement (to induce puberty, prevent osteoporosis, and support cardiovascular health). Low-dose oestrogen is typically started around 11–12 years to mimic normal puberty onset, then titrated up over 2–3 years, followed by cyclical HRT for menstrual cycles. High FSH/LH with 45,XO confirms primary ovarian insufficiency — spontaneous puberty will NOT occur.
Turner syndrome: rhGH for height + low-dose oestrogen at 11–12 years for pubertal induction (titrated up over 2–3 years) + cyclical HRT — do not delay oestrogen beyond early adolescence.
Spontaneous puberty does not occur in Turner syndrome with primary ovarian insufficiency (elevated FSH/LH). Delaying to 16 years causes osteoporosis and adverse cardiovascular outcomes. High-dose oestrogen early accelerates bone maturation and reduces final height.
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Which of the following correctly identifies a child as having failure to thrive (FTT) based on growth chart criteria?
FTT can be defined by: weight-for-height <−2 SD (wasting), weight-for-age <−2 SD, OR by growth faltering on serial charts — crossing downward across two major percentile lines (e.g., from 50th to below 10th). A single below-10th-percentile measurement without velocity assessment does not define FTT.
FTT = weight-for-height <−2 SD, or weight-for-age <−2 SD, or crossing two major centile lines downward on serial charts — serial measurement is as important as single-point thresholds.
The 25th percentile is within normal variation. Height-for-age reflects stunting (chronic malnutrition) not FTT as classically defined. A single below-10th-percentile measurement without serial charting is insufficient for diagnosis.
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A paediatrician is counselling a family about their 18-month-old child's failure to thrive. The mother mentions she is a single parent, works night shifts, and relies on a 14-year-old sibling to feed the child at night. The MOST appropriate next step that addresses the ROOT CAUSE is:
When social determinants (single parenthood, poverty, irregular work hours, inadequate caregiving) drive FTT, addressing only the nutritional gap without social support is insufficient. Connecting to ICDS/Anganwadi services (which provide supplementary nutrition, growth monitoring, and childcare support), creating a feasible feeding plan, and psychosocial assessment are the root-cause-directed interventions.
Non-organic FTT driven by social determinants requires addressing root causes: psychosocial assessment, ICDS/Anganwadi referral, and feasible family-centred feeding plans — not just nutritional supplementation.
Calorie supplements alone without social support address the symptom, not the cause. Unnecessary hospitalisation for a non-severely malnourished child is inappropriate and disruptive. Advising the mother to quit her job is impractical, judgmental, and potentially harmful to household income.
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A 6-year-old boy has short stature and is found to have hypothyroidism (TSH 85 mU/L, free T4 very low). Bone age is 3 years. Which statement BEST describes the expected outcome with levothyroxine treatment?
Hypothyroid short stature responds dramatically to levothyroxine. Treating the underlying hypothyroidism restores normal GH secretion and IGF-1 axis function. If treated adequately, most children achieve catch-up growth and normal final height, especially when bone age is significantly less than chronological age (providing 'growth reserve').
Hypothyroid short stature: treat the hypothyroidism first — levothyroxine restores the GH-IGF-1 axis and enables catch-up growth; a young bone age predicts good growth potential; GH supplementation is not needed.
GH supplementation is not indicated in hypothyroid short stature — the GH axis will normalise once euthyroid status is achieved. Bone age significantly younger than chronological age actually provides more time for catch-up growth, not less.
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During assessment of a child with failure to thrive, which combination of findings MOST strongly suggests an organic (medical) rather than non-organic cause?
Organic FTT is suggested when caloric intake is demonstrably adequate but growth fails — here, recurrent diarrhoea + abdominal distension + family history of coeliac disease with adequate intake points strongly to malabsorption as the organic mechanism. Investigations (anti-tTG IgA, endoscopy) would be appropriate.
Organic FTT red flags: adequate caloric intake but growth fails; recurrent diarrhoea, steatorrhoea, organomegaly, dysmorphic features, vomiting, or recurrent infection — these warrant targeted investigation for a medical cause.
Options A, C, and D describe non-organic scenarios: normal social development and low intake (inadequate diet), psychosocial deprivation, and behavioural feeding difficulties, respectively. These represent the majority of FTT cases.
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