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AS5.{1-3,5-6} | Regional Anaesthesia — Graded Quiz

Graded 10 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 AS5.1 1 pt

A 45-year-old woman with a history of severe aortic stenosis (valve area 0.7 cm²) is scheduled for total hip replacement. The anaesthesiologist is choosing between combined spinal-epidural (CSE) and general anaesthesia. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the haemodynamic risk associated with spinal anaesthesia in this patient?

A Spinal anaesthesia is safe because the sympathectomy is predictable and controllable
B Single-shot spinal anaesthesia is relatively contraindicated because abrupt sympathectomy reduces preload and afterload — a dangerous combination with fixed low cardiac output from severe AS
C Spinal anaesthesia is preferred because it avoids the tachycardia of general anaesthesia, which is better tolerated in AS
D Epidural without spinal component is equally hazardous and should also be avoided in severe AS

Correct. Severe aortic stenosis produces a fixed cardiac output dependent on adequate preload and afterload. Single-shot spinal causes rapid sympathectomy, reducing both preload (venous pooling) and afterload — precipitating catastrophic hypotension. CSE or epidural (titrated slowly) is safer than single-shot spinal if neuraxial is chosen; general anaesthesia with haemodynamic monitoring is also appropriate.

Severe AS (fixed CO, dependent on preload+afterload) is a relative contraindication to single-shot spinal due to abrupt sympathectomy. Titrated epidural or general anaesthesia with invasive monitoring is preferred. Avoid rapid haemodynamic shifts.

Incorrect. The core issue is the SPEED and unpredictability of single-shot spinal sympathectomy in a patient who cannot compensate. Severe AS is a relative contraindication to single-shot spinal, not to all neuraxial techniques. Titrated epidural can be used carefully. And general anaesthesia, while not without risk, allows more haemodynamic control.

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Q2 AS5.2 1 pt

During an ultrasound-guided infraclavicular brachial plexus block, the anaesthesiologist deposits local anaesthetic around the lateral, posterior, and medial cords. A successful block of ALL three cords will provide anaesthesia to which of the following terminal branches?

A Musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median, and ulnar nerves only below the shoulder
B Lateral cord → musculocutaneous and lateral head of median; posterior cord → radial and axillary; medial cord → ulnar and medial head of median
C Lateral cord → radial and axillary; posterior cord → musculocutaneous; medial cord → median and ulnar
D Lateral cord → musculocutaneous only; posterior cord → radial, axillary, and median; medial cord → ulnar

Correct. The lateral cord gives the musculocutaneous nerve and the lateral root of the median nerve. The posterior cord divides into the axillary and radial nerves. The medial cord gives the ulnar nerve and the medial root of the median nerve (which joins the lateral root to form the median nerve).

Lateral cord → musculocutaneous + lateral root of median. Posterior cord → axillary + radial. Medial cord → ulnar + medial root of median. Median nerve requires lateral AND medial cord contributions — blocking both is essential for complete hand surgery anaesthesia.

Incorrect. The axillary nerve arises from the posterior cord (not the lateral). The musculocutaneous nerve comes from the lateral cord. Median nerve formation requires contributions from BOTH lateral and medial cords — this is the key point that distinguishes infraclavicular and axillary blocks.

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Q3 AS5.3 1 pt

A 35-year-old patient (70 kg) is having a femoral nerve block plus sciatic nerve block for knee surgery. The anaesthesiologist uses 30 mL of 1.5% lignocaine with 1:200,000 adrenaline for the femoral block and plans 20 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine (without adrenaline) for the sciatic block. Are these doses within safe limits?

A Yes — both drugs are within safe limits
B No — lignocaine with adrenaline (1.5% × 30 mL = 450 mg = 6.4 mg/kg) exceeds the 7 mg/kg limit, but bupivacaine (100 mg = 1.43 mg/kg) is within the 2 mg/kg limit
C No — bupivacaine (0.5% × 20 mL = 100 mg = 1.43 mg/kg) is within 2 mg/kg limit, but when combined with the lignocaine load, total LA toxicity risk is additive
D Lignocaine 1.5% × 30 mL = 450 mg = 6.4 mg/kg (safe limit 7 mg/kg with adrenaline: within limit); bupivacaine 0.5% × 20 mL = 100 mg = 1.43 mg/kg (safe limit 2 mg/kg plain: within limit); however, additive CNS toxicity risk when multiple LAs are used — safe individually but concurrent use warrants caution
E No — bupivacaine 0.5% exceeds the safe concentration limit for peripheral nerve blocks

Correct. Lignocaine 6.4 mg/kg is within the 7 mg/kg limit (with adrenaline). Bupivacaine 1.43 mg/kg is within the 2 mg/kg limit (plain). However, concurrent use of two LA agents is additive for systemic toxicity — the combined central nervous system and cardiovascular toxicity threshold is lower than the individual limits suggest. This warrants close monitoring.

LA safe limits: lignocaine 3 mg/kg plain, 7 mg/kg with adrenaline; bupivacaine 2 mg/kg (no IV regional use). Always calculate mg/kg from concentration (%). Concurrent LAs have additive toxicity risk even when each is below its individual ceiling.

Incorrect. The key calculation: lignocaine 1.5% = 15 mg/mL × 30 mL = 450 mg ÷ 70 kg = 6.4 mg/kg (within 7 mg/kg limit with adrenaline). Bupivacaine 0.5% = 5 mg/mL × 20 mL = 100 mg ÷ 70 kg = 1.43 mg/kg (within 2 mg/kg plain limit). Both are individually within safe doses, but additive toxicity risk exists.

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Q4 AS5.6 1 pt

A patient undergoes wrist surgery under an axillary brachial plexus block. The block is assessed 20 minutes later. Pinprick sensation is intact over the dorsal web space between thumb and index finger (first dorsal interosseous territory). Which terminal branch is inadequately blocked?

A Ulnar nerve
B Median nerve
C Radial nerve (superficial branch)
D Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct. The dorsal web space between the thumb and index finger (anatomical snuffbox region) is exclusively supplied by the superficial branch of the radial nerve. Intact pinprick there indicates the radial nerve was not adequately blocked — the most common failure in axillary blocks because the radial nerve lies deepest in the axilla and is most easily missed.

Radial nerve sensory landmark = dorsal web space between thumb and index finger. Ulnar = little finger dorsal/palmar; Median = palmar lateral 3 digits; Musculocutaneous = lateral forearm. In axillary blocks, the radial nerve is most often missed as it lies posteriorly.

Incorrect. The ulnar nerve supplies the little finger and medial palm. The median nerve supplies the palmar surface of the lateral 3.5 digits. The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the lateral forearm. The dorsal thumb web space (first dorsal interosseous territory) is the radial nerve's sensory landmark.

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Q5 AS5.5 1 pt

When performing a caudal epidural block in a neonate, the needle is inserted through the sacrococcygeal membrane and the anaesthesiologist advances it 5 mm into the sacral canal. Why is this advancement depth critically important in neonates compared to adults?

A The sacral hiatus is smaller in neonates, requiring less needle advancement to reach the epidural space
B In neonates, the dural sac extends to S3–S4 (vs S2 in adults), so advancing more than 1–2 cm risks intrathecal puncture and total spinal
C Advancing too far risks penetrating the presacral fascia and injuring pelvic organs, which are closer to the skin in neonates
D The sacrococcygeal membrane is thicker in neonates, so deeper advancement is required to confirm entry into the epidural space

Correct. In neonates and infants, the dural sac extends more caudally, to approximately S3–S4, compared to S2 in adults. Advancing the needle more than 1–2 cm past the sacrococcygeal membrane risks dural puncture. The textbook warning is: in neonates, never advance beyond 1.5 cm past the hiatus.

Neonatal dural sac extends to S3–S4 (vs S2 adults). Never advance caudal needle more than 1–2 cm past the sacrococcygeal membrane in neonates. This is the primary safety constraint distinguishing paediatric from adult caudal technique.

Incorrect. The critical anatomical reason for depth limitation is the caudal extension of the dural sac in neonates. The sacrococcygeal membrane is actually thinner and more easily identified in neonates. Pelvic organ injury is a real risk but not the primary concern limiting needle advancement depth.

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Q6 AS5.1 1 pt

A 32-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks' gestation is in active labour and requests epidural analgesia. She has mild pre-eclampsia with platelets of 92 × 10⁹/L and no signs of DIC. Which of the following represents the most evidence-based decision?

A Epidural is absolutely contraindicated below platelet count of 100 × 10⁹/L
B Epidural is safe at any platelet count in pre-eclampsia because hypertension increases epidural vein engorgement and the benefit outweighs risk
C Epidural is generally acceptable at platelet count ≥80 × 10⁹/L in the absence of a falling trend or coagulopathy, based on current consensus; the decision requires individual risk–benefit assessment
D Spinal anaesthesia is always preferred over epidural in pre-eclampsia because it uses a smaller needle

Correct. Current obstetric anaesthesia guidelines (SOAP, OAA) suggest neuraxial techniques are generally acceptable down to platelet counts of 70–80 × 10⁹/L when the trend is stable and there is no coagulopathy. A count of 92 × 10⁹/L with no DIC is within acceptable range. However, individual assessment of trend, rate of fall, and coagulation profile is mandatory.

Neuraxial block in pre-eclampsia: generally acceptable at platelets ≥70–80 × 10⁹/L with no falling trend or DIC. Individual risk-benefit assessment is mandatory. Epidural provides haemodynamic benefits in pre-eclampsia and can be extended for emergency caesarean.

Incorrect. The 100 × 10⁹/L threshold is a conservative institutional policy, not a universal contraindication. The actual decision threshold varies between 70–80 × 10⁹/L in most current guidance, provided there is no falling trend or DIC. The benefit of epidural analgesia in pre-eclampsia (reduced sympathoadrenal response, haemodynamic stability, ability to extend for caesarean) often outweighs risk at 92 × 10⁹/L.

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Q7 AS5.3 1 pt

An anaesthesiologist performs an ultrasound-guided supraclavicular brachial plexus block. The brachial plexus at the supraclavicular level lies at which anatomical relationship to the subclavian artery?

A Anterior and medial to the subclavian artery at the level of the first rib
B Posterolateral (lateral and posterior) to the subclavian artery, with the plexus appearing as a 'cluster of grapes' superior and lateral to the artery on ultrasound
C Directly posterior to the subclavian artery between the anterior and middle scalene muscles
D Inferior to the subclavian artery on the surface of the first rib, between the artery and the pleura

Correct. At the supraclavicular level, the brachial plexus lies posterolateral to the subclavian artery on the surface of the first rib. On ultrasound, the artery appears as a pulsatile hypoechoic circle, and the plexus appears as a cluster of hypoechoic nodules (like a cluster of grapes) superior and lateral to the artery.

Supraclavicular block: plexus lies posterolateral to subclavian artery on first rib. Ultrasound shows 'cluster of grapes' pattern. Pneumothorax risk from medially-directed needle — always direct laterally. Most complete block for upper limb surgery.

Incorrect. The plexus lies posterolateral to the subclavian artery. The key safety point: the pleural dome lies medial and inferior — the needle must be directed laterally to avoid pneumothorax. At this level the plexus is compact (trunks/divisions), making supraclavicular the most reliably complete brachial plexus block.

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Q8 AS5.5 1 pt

A 6-year-old girl (22 kg) undergoes hypospadias repair under general anaesthesia with a caudal epidural for postoperative analgesia using the Armitage formula with 0.25% bupivacaine. She develops respiratory depression in recovery. Her SpO₂ is 88% on room air. What is the most likely cause?

A High thoracic spread of the caudal local anaesthetic blocking intercostal motor nerves
B Opioid administered concurrently in the caudal or intravenously causing respiratory depression
C Bilateral phrenic nerve palsy from excess volume of bupivacaine
D LA-induced methemoglobinaemia reducing SpO₂ reading

Correct. Bupivacaine alone in a caudal epidural does not cause respiratory depression — local anaesthetics block sodium channels and have no direct central respiratory depressant effect at conventional doses. Respiratory depression in a child after caudal block should prompt immediate investigation for concurrent opioid use (intraoperative IV opioids or caudal opioid additives such as morphine, fentanyl, or clonidine).

Bupivacaine caudal alone does NOT cause respiratory depression. Post-caudal desaturation in a child = suspect opioid (IV or caudal additive). Treat with naloxone and supplemental oxygen. Avoid opioid additives in caudal blocks performed as outpatient techniques.

Incorrect. Caudal bupivacaine at lumbar doses (1 mL/kg = 22 mL of 0.25%) does not spread high enough to block intercostal nerves, and phrenic nerve palsy would require cervical spread — impossible at these volumes. The combination of bupivacaine + IV opioids is the classic cause of respiratory depression post-caudal in children.

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Q9 AS5.6 1 pt

A patient receives a femoral nerve block for quadriceps pain following ACL reconstruction. Three hours later, she attempts to stand and falls, fracturing her patella. Which property of the femoral nerve block directly contributed to this outcome?

A Sensory block of the anterior thigh causing loss of proprioception
B Motor block of the quadriceps (femoral nerve = L2–L4 = extensor mechanism) causing inability to lock the knee on weight-bearing
C Inadvertent obturator nerve block causing medial thigh weakness and adductor failure
D Sympathetic blockade causing ipsilateral limb vasodilation and reduced proprioceptive feedback

Correct. The femoral nerve (L2–L4) supplies the quadriceps — the primary knee extensor and 'locking' mechanism for weight-bearing. A dense femoral nerve block causes profound quadriceps motor block, eliminating the patient's ability to control knee extension. Falls with femoral nerve blocks in ambulatory settings are a recognised patient safety issue, driving adoption of adductor canal blocks (which spare more motor function) for outpatient ACL procedures.

Femoral nerve block = quadriceps motor block = fall risk. This is why adductor canal blocks are preferred for outpatient ACL surgery — they preserve more motor function. Always counsel patients on fall precautions and ensure physiotherapy supervision for ambulation post-femoral block.

Incorrect. While sensory loss and proprioceptive impairment contribute, the primary fall risk is MOTOR block of the quadriceps. The femoral nerve carries motor fibres to quadriceps (knee extension). Without quadriceps control, patients cannot prevent the knee from buckling on weight-bearing. This is why adductor canal blocks (sparing most motor function) are now preferred for outpatient ACL repair.

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Q10 AS5.2 1 pt

A spinal anaesthetic is administered at L3–L4 for a lower abdominal surgery. The sensory block reaches T6 bilaterally. The patient then develops severe hypotension (BP 68/40 mmHg) and bradycardia (heart rate 42 bpm). Which mechanism best explains the bradycardia in this scenario?

A Vagal reflex triggered by hypotension sensed by baroreceptors causing parasympathetic activation
B Block of the cardiac accelerator fibres (T1–T4 sympathetic outflow) resulting in unopposed vagal tone and bradycardia
C Direct toxic effect of bupivacaine on cardiac conduction at the T6 level
D Bezold-Jarisch reflex from reduced venous return to an already-empty right heart

Correct (best single mechanism). With T6 sensory block, the sympathetic block may reach T1–T4 — the origin of the cardioaccelerator fibres. Blockade of these fibres abolishes sympathetic acceleration of the heart, and, with venous pooling reducing venous return, unopposed vagal tone causes bradycardia. This is the classic 'high spinal' bradycardia mechanism.

High spinal (sensory to T6 or higher) → sympathectomy of cardiac accelerator fibres (T1–T4) → bradycardia. Combined with venous pooling → hypotension. Treat with IV fluids, vasopressors (ephedrine/phenylephrine), and atropine for bradycardia.

Incorrect. While the Bezold-Jarisch reflex can contribute to bradycardia with high spinal blocks (it is a recognised additional mechanism), the primary cause of bradycardia with T6 or higher sensory block is sympathectomy of the cardioaccelerator fibres (T1–T4). Baroreceptor-mediated vagal activation would actually cause bradycardia, not tachycardia, but the sympathetic block is the dominant mechanism here.

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