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AS5.{1-3,5-6} | Regional Anaesthesia — Practice Quiz

Practice 8 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 AS5.1 1 pt

A 58-year-old man with COPD and an ejection fraction of 35% is listed for right total knee replacement under tourniquet. He is awake, cooperative, and has no coagulopathy. Which of the following best justifies choosing spinal anaesthesia over general anaesthesia in this patient?

A Spinal anaesthesia completely abolishes tourniquet pain
B Spinal anaesthesia avoids airway instrumentation, mechanical ventilation, and systemic anaesthetic agents, reducing respiratory and cardiovascular burden
C Spinal anaesthesia eliminates all risk of hypotension in patients with cardiac dysfunction
D Spinal anaesthesia provides superior postoperative analgesia compared to femoral nerve block plus spinal combination

Correct. Neuraxial anaesthesia avoids endotracheal intubation, positive-pressure ventilation, and systemic volatile agents — all of which are particularly hazardous in severe COPD and low EF. It also enables early mobilisation and reduces opioid consumption postoperatively.

Regional anaesthesia is the preferred primary technique for lower-limb orthopaedic surgery in patients with severe respiratory or cardiac disease, chiefly because it avoids airway instrumentation and systemic anaesthetic agents.

Incorrect. Spinal does not abolish tourniquet pain (sympathetic fibres may escape the block), and sympathectomy-induced hypotension is a significant risk with impaired cardiac output. The key rationale is avoidance of airway and ventilatory compromise.

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Q2 AS5.2 1 pt

A registrar performing a lumbar spinal anaesthetic passes the needle in the midline at L3–L4. In sequence, from superficial to deep, which of the following correctly lists all layers the needle must traverse before entering the subarachnoid space?

A Skin → subcutaneous fat → supraspinous ligament → interspinous ligament → ligamentum flavum → epidural space → dura mater → subdural space → arachnoid mater
B Skin → subcutaneous fat → interspinous ligament → supraspinous ligament → ligamentum flavum → dura mater → epidural space → arachnoid mater
C Skin → subcutaneous fat → supraspinous ligament → ligamentum flavum → epidural space → dura mater → arachnoid mater
D Skin → subcutaneous fat → supraspinous ligament → interspinous ligament → epidural space → ligamentum flavum → dura mater

Correct. The midline sequence is: skin, subcutaneous fat, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum (the densest and most identifiable resistance), epidural space, dura mater, subdural space (potential), then arachnoid mater into the subarachnoid space.

Memorise the midline sequence: skin → subcutaneous fat → supraspinous → interspinous → ligamentum flavum → epidural space → dura → arachnoid → subarachnoid space. The 'give' felt as the needle enters the epidural space, and then CSF flow on stylet removal, are the two key tactile landmarks.

Incorrect. The order matters clinically — supraspinous ligament precedes interspinous ligament (not the reverse), and the ligamentum flavum is encountered before the epidural space and dura, not after.

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Q3 AS5.2 1 pt

A medical student is asked to trace the brachial plexus. Which of the following correctly describes the organisation from origin to terminal branches?

A Roots (C5–T1) → Trunks (upper/middle/lower) → Divisions (anterior/posterior) → Cords (lateral/posterior/medial) → Terminal branches
B Roots (C5–T1) → Cords → Divisions → Trunks → Terminal branches
C Roots (C5–T1) → Trunks → Cords → Divisions → Terminal branches
D Roots (C4–T1) → Divisions → Trunks → Cords → Terminal branches

Correct. The mnemonic is Robert Taylor Drinks Cold Beer: Roots → Trunks → Divisions → Cords → Branches. The cords are named by their relationship to the axillary artery — lateral, posterior, and medial.

Brachial plexus: Roots C5–T1 → upper/middle/lower Trunks → Divisions → lateral/posterior/medial Cords (named by relation to axillary artery) → terminal branches (musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median, ulnar).

Incorrect. The sequence must follow Roots → Trunks → Divisions → Cords → Terminal branches. Reversing trunks and cords, or placing cords before divisions, is a common error that will prevent correct identification of block levels.

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Q4 AS5.3 1 pt

During an ultrasound-guided axillary brachial plexus block, 30 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine is injected. The patient weighs 60 kg. Shortly after injection, the patient develops peri-oral tingling, then a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the immediate treatment of choice?

A Intravenous lignocaine 1.5 mg/kg bolus
B 20% intralipid emulsion intravenous bolus followed by infusion
C Intravenous sodium bicarbonate 8.4% and defibrillation
D Naloxone 0.4 mg intravenously

Correct. Local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) from bupivacaine is treated with 20% intralipid emulsion — 1.5 mL/kg IV bolus, repeated once if needed, followed by 0.25 mL/kg/min infusion. Lignocaine would worsen LA toxicity; naloxone is for opioid overdose; bicarbonate alone does not treat LAST.

Bupivacaine maximum safe dose is 2 mg/kg (no adrenaline formulation for IV regional). LAST: early CNS excitation → seizures → cardiovascular collapse. Treatment: 20% intralipid emulsion 1.5 mL/kg IV bolus + supportive care.

Incorrect. This is LAST (local anaesthetic systemic toxicity) — peri-oral tingling is an early CNS excitatory sign followed by seizures. The specific antidote is 20% intralipid emulsion. Note: 30 mL × 5 mg/mL = 150 mg bupivacaine = 2.5 mg/kg for a 60 kg patient, exceeding the safe limit of 2 mg/kg.

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Q5 AS5.1 1 pt

Which of the following best describes the correct differential block sequence in neuraxial anaesthesia — i.e., the order in which nerve fibre types are blocked as LA concentration rises?

A Motor → sensory → autonomic (sympathetic last)
B Autonomic (sympathetic) → sensory → motor, with sympathetic block extending 2 dermatomes above sensory
C Sensory → autonomic → motor
D Autonomic and sensory block together → motor last, at the same dermatome level

Correct. The differential block sequence follows: small-diameter, lightly myelinated fibres first — B fibres (preganglionic sympathetic), then C fibres (pain/temperature), then A-delta (sharp pain/light touch), and finally A-alpha (motor). Sympathetic block extends approximately 2 dermatomes above the sensory level.

Differential block in neuraxial anaesthesia: sympathetic first (2 dermatomes above sensory), then sensory, then motor. This explains vasodilation/hypotension preceding surgical anaesthesia.

Incorrect. Because sympathetic (B) fibres are smallest, they are blocked first and at the lowest LA concentration. This is why hypotension (sympathectomy) can precede adequate sensory block and why sympathetic block extends higher than sensory block.

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Q6 AS5.6 1 pt

A 28-year-old patient undergoes arthroscopic shoulder surgery under interscalene brachial plexus block. Thirty minutes post-block, she reports difficulty breathing. On examination, she has reduced breath sounds on the ipsilateral side. Which complication of interscalene block best explains this finding?

A Pneumothorax from inadvertent pleural puncture
B Ipsilateral phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paresis (expected incidence ~100%)
C Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy causing vocal cord paralysis
D Horner's syndrome from stellate ganglion block

Correct. Ipsilateral phrenic nerve palsy occurs in essentially all interscalene blocks because C3, C4, C5 are all involved and the phrenic nerve (C3–C5) is invariably affected. This causes ipsilateral hemidiaphragm paresis and a 25–30% reduction in FVC. In patients with contralateral lung disease, this is contraindicated.

Interscalene block invariably causes ipsilateral phrenic nerve palsy (~100%) with 25–30% FVC reduction. It is contraindicated in patients with severe contralateral lung disease. Horner's syndrome and recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy also occur but are less clinically significant in healthy patients.

Incorrect. While pneumothorax, recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, and Horner's syndrome are all recognised complications of interscalene block, the near-universal complication explaining ipsilateral respiratory reduction is ipsilateral phrenic nerve palsy — it is an expected consequence, not an avoidable complication.

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Q7 AS5.5 1 pt

A 4-year-old boy (weight 16 kg) is undergoing inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The surgeon requests a caudal epidural for postoperative analgesia. Using the Armitage formula (0.5 mL/kg for sacral/lumbar, 1 mL/kg for thoracolumbar), what is the correct volume of 0.25% bupivacaine for lumbar coverage?

A 8 mL
B 16 mL
C 32 mL
D 4 mL

Correct. The Armitage formula for lumbar coverage is 1 mL/kg. For a 16 kg child, this is 16 mL of 0.25% bupivacaine. The dose of bupivacaine = 16 mL × 2.5 mg/mL = 40 mg = 2.5 mg/kg, which is at the upper limit of the safe dose (2 mg/kg plain) — so in practice 0.2% bupivacaine is preferred for volumes exceeding 1 mL/kg.

Armitage formula for paediatric caudal: sacral = 0.5 mL/kg, lumbar = 1 mL/kg, mid-thoracic = 1.25 mL/kg. Always calculate the total LA dose (mg/kg) separately to confirm it stays within the safe range.

Incorrect. The Armitage formula: sacral/lumbar = 0.5 mL/kg; thoracolumbar = 1 mL/kg; midthoracic = 1.25 mL/kg. For 16 kg at 1 mL/kg = 16 mL. 8 mL would be the sacral dose; 32 mL is twice the needed volume.

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Q8 AS5.5 1 pt

A trainee is performing a caudal epidural block on an adult. She palpates the sacral cornu and identifies the sacral hiatus. After aspirating to confirm no blood or CSF, she injects the local anaesthetic. The patient immediately reports severe headache and the injection pressure feels very low with no resistance. What has most likely occurred?

A Correct caudal epidural injection — low resistance is expected
B Intravascular injection into the sacral venous plexus
C Intrathecal injection through a dural puncture — dural sac may extend to S4–S5 in adults
D Subcutaneous injection with the needle tip superficial to the sacrococcygeal membrane

None of the above is an ideal single answer as presented. The correct interpretation: very low resistance AND severe headache suggests intrathecal placement (the dural sac in adults may extend lower than expected, and a misplaced needle can puncture it). Aspiration alone does not fully exclude dural puncture if the aperture is partially outside the sac.

In adult caudal block, the dural sac ends at S2 but anatomical variants place it lower. Always use a test dose (3 mL containing adrenaline 1:200,000), watch for tachycardia (intravascular) or rapidly spreading block (intrathecal) before full injection.

The combination of very low resistance (no epidural 'pop' or tissue resistance) with immediate headache is a red flag for inadvertent dural puncture and subarachnoid injection. In adults the dural sac ends at S2; however, anatomical variants exist. This scenario underscores the importance of test-dose technique.

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