MI3.10-13 | Blood & Tissue Parasites and HIV/AIDS — Graded Quiz

A peripheral blood smear from a patient with suspected malaria shows the following: RBCs of normal size, ring forms with a single chromatin dot, some rings pressed against the RBC membrane (appliqué/accolé forms), a parasitaemia of 8%, and a few crescentic gametocytes. What is the correct interpretation?

Cerebral malaria is the most feared complication of Plasmodium falciparum infection. The MOST important mechanism by which P. falciparum causes cerebral sequestration is:

A 25-year-old HIV-positive patient (CD4+ 45 cells/μL) presents with decreased vision in one eye. Fundoscopy reveals characteristic 'pizza pie' retinal appearance — haemorrhages and white exudates along retinal vessels. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Which of the following correctly describes the window period and the recommended confirmatory strategy for HIV diagnosis in India?

A patient with P. vivax malaria is started on chloroquine and primaquine. On day 3, he develops jaundice and dark urine with a sudden drop in haemoglobin. Which investigation would BEST confirm the mechanism of this complication?

In the natural history of HIV infection, which immunological event reliably marks the transition from the asymptomatic latent phase to the AIDS-defining phase?

A blood film from a patient returning from sub-Saharan Africa shows intraerythrocytic organisms forming a 'Maltese cross' (tetrad form). Normal-sized RBCs are infected. The patient has no travel history to India. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Which antiretroviral drug CLASS acts by blocking the integration of HIV DNA into the host cell genome?

Lymphatic filariasis in India is targeted for elimination by 2030 under the National Filaria Control Programme. The MOST widely used diagnostic test for active W. bancrofti infection (especially for community surveys) is:

A 40-year-old HIV-positive man (CD4+ 80 cells/μL) presents with fever, non-productive cough, and progressive breathlessness. Chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates ('ground glass'). LDH is markedly elevated. What is the MOST likely diagnosis and first-line treatment?

Which of the following correctly describes the role of HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy) backbone in India's first-line adult ART regimen under the National AIDS Control Programme?