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MI3.10-13 | Blood & Tissue Parasites and HIV/AIDS — Practice Quiz

Practice 10 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 MI3.12 1 pt

A 28-year-old male from Assam presents with fever spiking every 48 hours, anaemia, and splenomegaly. Peripheral blood smear shows enlarged red blood cells with Schüffner's dots and amoebioid-form trophozoites. Which Plasmodium species is most likely responsible?

A Plasmodium falciparum
B Plasmodium vivax
C Plasmodium malariae
D Plasmodium knowlesi

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Q2 MI3.11 1 pt

A physician prescribes primaquine to a patient with P. vivax malaria for radical cure. Before starting, which investigation is MOST important to perform?

A Serum bilirubin
B G6PD enzyme assay
C Reticulocyte count
D Chest X-ray

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Q3 MI3.12 1 pt

Which of the following peripheral smear features is MOST diagnostic of Plasmodium falciparum infection?

A Enlarged RBCs with Schüffner's dots
B Band-form trophozoites in normal-sized RBCs
C Multiple ring forms per RBC with appliqué forms and banana-shaped gametocytes
D Oval RBCs with fimbriated edges and Schüffner's dots

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Q4 MI3.11 1 pt

A 35-year-old woman from Bihar presents with prolonged fever, progressive weakness, and massive splenomegaly. Bone marrow biopsy reveals intracellular oval bodies (2–4 μm) within macrophages showing a large nucleus and a rod-shaped kinetoplast. What is the diagnosis?

A Falciparum malaria
B Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
C Filariasis
D Babesiosis

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Q5 MI3.12 1 pt

Rapid Diagnostic Tests (RDTs) for malaria detect histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP-2) as a specific antigen. Which Plasmodium species does HRP-2 specifically identify?

A Plasmodium vivax
B Plasmodium falciparum
C Plasmodium malariae
D All Plasmodium species equally

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Q6 MI3.13 1 pt

A 32-year-old HIV-positive patient has a CD4+ count of 180 cells/μL. He develops headache, fever, and neck stiffness. CSF India ink preparation shows encapsulated yeast cells. Which opportunistic infection is most likely?

A Toxoplasma gondii encephalitis
B Cryptococcal meningitis
C Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
D CMV retinitis

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Q7 MI3.13 1 pt

HIV replication depends on the enzyme reverse transcriptase. Which property of reverse transcriptase MOST contributes to rapid viral mutation and drug resistance?

A High processivity (reads long RNA templates without dissociating)
B Lack of proofreading (3'→5' exonuclease activity)
C Ability to use both RNA and DNA templates
D Requirement for cellular tRNA as a primer

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Q8 MI3.13 1 pt

In India, the National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) recommends 4th-generation ELISA as the primary screening test for HIV. What does a 4th-generation assay detect that distinguishes it from 3rd-generation assays?

A HIV RNA (viral load)
B HIV p24 antigen AND HIV antibodies simultaneously
C HIV DNA provirus
D CD4+ T-cell count

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Q9 MI3.11 1 pt

A 6-year-old child from Kerala presents with fever and scrotal swelling. Blood smear taken at midnight shows sheathed microfilariae 244–296 μm long with a clear, nuclei-free tail tip. Which parasite is most likely?

A Wuchereria bancrofti
B Brugia malayi
C Loa loa
D Mansonella perstans

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Q10 MI3.13 1 pt

Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS) is a recognised complication of starting antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which statement about IRIS is CORRECT?

A It occurs only in patients without a pre-existing opportunistic infection
B It results from an exaggerated inflammatory response to subclinical or treated pathogens as CD4+ counts recover
C It is best managed by stopping ART permanently
D It typically occurs more than 12 months after ART initiation

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