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MI9.1-6 | Zoonotic, Opportunistic & Emerging Infections — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 MI9.1 1 pt

A 29-year-old veterinary assistant from Rajasthan presents with 3 weeks of undulant fever, profuse sweating, and bilateral sacroiliac joint pain. He regularly assists in calving and consumes unpasteurised camel milk. Blood culture is sent. Which selective medium is MOST appropriate for primary isolation of the suspected pathogen?

A MacConkey agar
B Castaneda's biphasic medium
C Lowenstein–Jensen medium
D Bordet–Gengou agar

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Q2 MI9.1 1 pt

A public health officer investigating a plague outbreak in a rural district of Himachal Pradesh wants to rapidly confirm Yersinia pestis in lymph node aspirate from a dead rat. Which combination of tests best provides both presumptive identification AND species confirmation in the field laboratory?

A Gram stain + oxidase test
B Wayson stain (bipolar 'safety-pin' morphology) + FA test with Y. pestis-specific antiserum
C Ziehl–Neelsen stain + Widal test
D Dark-field microscopy + MAT

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Q3 MI9.2 1 pt

A 55-year-old diabetic man undergoes emergency orchidectomy for Fournier's gangrene. Intraoperative cultures grow a mixed flora including Bacteroides fragilis, Escherichia coli, and Streptococcus anginosus. Histopathology shows thrombosis of subcutaneous vessels with widespread tissue necrosis. This infection pattern is BEST explained by which mechanism of opportunistic pathogenesis?

A Impaired neutrophil killing due to myeloperoxidase deficiency secondary to diabetes
B Synergistic polymicrobial virulence causing vascular occlusion and ischaemia in immunometabolically compromised tissue
C Reactivation of latent viral infection secondary to lymphopenia
D Disruption of adaptive immunity at CD4 count below 200 cells/µL

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Q4 MI9.2 1 pt

A 44-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus on long-term prednisolone (40 mg/day) and mycophenolate develops 5 days of fever, pleuritic chest pain, and progressive dyspnoea. HRCT chest shows wedge-shaped peripheral consolidation with a central hypodense zone ('halo sign'). Bronchoscopy lavage reveals septate hyphae at 45° branching angles. Which diagnostic test will MOST reliably distinguish invasive aspergillosis from mucormycosis in this sample?

A India ink stain
B Serum (1→3)-β-D-glucan assay
C Serum galactomannan assay
D KOH mount of the BAL fluid

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Q5 MI9.4 1 pt

A 19-year-old male presents to an STI clinic with multiple soft, fleshy, exophytic warty growths around the anus and perianal region. HPV genotyping confirms HPV type 6 infection. He asks whether he is at increased risk of anal cancer. Which cellular mechanism BEST explains why HPV type 6 carries lower oncogenic risk compared to HPV type 16?

A HPV 6 lacks the L1 and L2 capsid proteins necessary for cellular entry
B HPV 6 E6 protein has low binding affinity for p53 and E7 has low affinity for pRb, preventing efficient tumour suppressor degradation
C HPV 6 does not integrate into the host genome and remains exclusively episomal
D HPV 6 does not produce E1 and E2 proteins required for viral DNA replication

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Q6 MI9.3 1 pt

A 40-year-old HIV-positive patient (CD4 count: 75 cells/µL, not on ART) develops odynophagia. Endoscopy shows diffuse, creamy-white plaques covering the entire oesophagus that can be scraped off to reveal a bleeding base. Biopsy shows pseudohyphae invading the mucosa. He is started on systemic fluconazole. After 5 days, he has not improved. Which investigation is MOST appropriate next?

A Repeat upper GI endoscopy with biopsies for culture on chromogenic agar and antifungal susceptibility testing
B Serum cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination test
C Serum galactomannan assay
D Blood culture on CHROM agar for Candida speciation only

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Q7 MI9.1 1 pt

An epidemiologist investigates an outbreak of febrile illness with haemorrhagic manifestations and jaundice among slaughterhouse workers in Andhra Pradesh. Of 40 workers, 18 are affected. Serology confirms Q fever (Coxiella burnetii). The source is traced to parturient goats. Which property of Coxiella burnetii MOST explains why it is exceptionally hazardous in a slaughterhouse setting?

A It is transmitted exclusively by Ixodes tick bite, making workers uniformly exposed at slaughter
B Its spore-like small-cell variant (SCV) survives in dried fomites and aerosols for months, with ID₅₀ of 1–10 organisms via inhalation
C It produces lipopolysaccharide phase variation that resists all common disinfectants including hypochlorite
D Workers develop sterilising immunity after initial infection, masking ongoing transmission

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Q8 MI9.4 1 pt

A 61-year-old male smoker with a 30-year history of H. pylori gastritis undergoes gastroscopy showing a 3 cm antral ulcer with rolled edges and central necrosis. Biopsy confirms intestinal-type gastric adenocarcinoma. Regarding H. pylori's carcinogenic mechanism, which pathway MOST directly drives intestinal metaplasia — the critical premalignant step?

A CagA protein activating the PI3K/Akt pathway → cell survival and anti-apoptosis
B CagA translocation via T4SS → aberrant SHP-2 activation → loss of CDX2-mediated intestinal differentiation reversal
C VacA-induced mitochondrial apoptosis depleting parietal cells → hypochlorhydria → altered microbiome with bile reflux promoting CDX2 expression and intestinal metaplasia
D Urease-produced ammonia directly alkylating DNA in gastric epithelial cells causing frame-shift mutations

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Q9 MI9.5 1 pt

A cluster of 8 patients with severe encephalitis and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is reported in a pig-farming community in northern Kerala. All patients had direct contact with symptomatic pigs showing neurological signs. Fruit bats (Pteropus) are found roosting in mango trees over the pig pens. One healthcare worker who managed the patients without PPE develops similar illness. Based on these epidemiological features, which characteristic of this pathogen MOST concerns the outbreak response team regarding pandemic potential?

A High mutation rate due to RNA-dependent RNA polymerase error-prone replication enabling rapid antigenic variation
B Demonstrated bat-to-pig-to-human spillover with healthcare worker-to-patient transmission, indicating bridging host competency and limited human-to-human spread
C Ability to survive in the environment for >30 days enabling fomite transmission at regional scale
D Effective person-to-person airborne transmission with a reproductive number (R₀) exceeding 2.5

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Q10 MI9.6 1 pt

A state health department reviews its National TB Elimination Programme performance. Despite high GeneXpert coverage, smear conversion rates remain suboptimal in tribal district hospitals. The programme manager proposes integrating Digital Adherence Technologies (DATs) under the Ni-kshay 2.0 framework. Under the current National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP), which combination of interventions represents the COMPLETE standard package for a newly diagnosed drug-sensitive TB patient?

A DOTS (daily) + GeneXpert confirmation + Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana nutritional support + Active Case Finding
B DOTS (daily) + Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana (₹500/month) + Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (Ni-kshay Mitra) + DAT
C Daily 4-drug regimen (2HRZE/4HR) + Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana + Ni-kshay portal registration + beneficiary linkage to social support (Ni-kshay Mitra)
D Twice-weekly intermittent DOTS + Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana + pyridoxine supplement + monthly sputum smear monitoring

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Q11 MI9.3 1 pt

A clinician in an urban referral centre is evaluating a 37-year-old immunocompetent man who returned from Andaman & Nicobar Islands 2 weeks ago with a 10-day febrile illness. He reports daily fever spikes reaching 40°C, myalgia, and a painless eschar on the right ankle. Peripheral blood smear shows no malarial parasites. Widal test is negative. Which investigation algorithm BEST confirms the suspected diagnosis?

A Thick and thin blood film for leishmania amastigotes + rK39 strip test
B IgM ELISA for Orientia tsutsugamushi (scrub typhus) + eschar biopsy for immunohistochemistry
C Blood culture on MacConkey agar + Weil-Felix OX19 agglutination test
D Dengue NS1 antigen + IgM ELISA on Day 5 post-fever onset

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Q12 MI9.6 1 pt

India launched the HPV vaccination programme including CERVAVAC (indigenous quadrivalent HPV vaccine) under the Universal Immunisation Programme in 2023. For a 15-year-old girl receiving her first dose today, which immunisation schedule AND rationale BEST reflects current Government of India recommendations?

A 3-dose schedule: 0, 1, 6 months — because adolescents ≥15 years require 3 doses for complete seroconversion equivalent to adults
B 2-dose schedule: 0, 6 months — because two doses in 9–14-year-olds generate non-inferior immunogenicity to 3 doses in older adolescents; effective only if primary series completed before sexual debut
C Single dose only — because WHO's Strategic Advisory Group (SAGE) recommends one-dose schedules for all adolescents as of 2022
D 2-dose schedule: 0, 2 months — because CERVAVAC's aluminium adjuvant requires shorter intervals for adequate immunological memory

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